S
SaintJVMan
Guest
For the past few days I’ve been in a dialogue with a number of Protestants, about inspiration, and Inerrancy, of scripture. To some extant I’ve been hindered by the apparent lack of an authoritative definition about the nature of Inerrancy. I’ve found a large number of resources from Catholic sites, all claiming to represent authentic Catholic doctrine, all citing the same sources and quoting the same people but coming to very different conclusions. The best that I’ve been able to come up with, concerning the position that I’ve been arguing is that it may be insufficient. Since I of course will submit to any authoritative declaration from the Church, I would appreciate any help, particularly any thing that I can read online to provide clarification.
Some of the specific questions that have come up are:
Does inerrancy extend to the whole of the sacred text, including historical details when the sacred writer meant to give an historical account?
Does this apply only to the originals?
The claims by many that inerrancy extends only to faith and morals.
If inspiration extends to the complete text, how it is that inerrancy can pertain only to matters of faith and morals.
Some of the specific questions that have come up are:
Does inerrancy extend to the whole of the sacred text, including historical details when the sacred writer meant to give an historical account?
Does this apply only to the originals?
The claims by many that inerrancy extends only to faith and morals.
If inspiration extends to the complete text, how it is that inerrancy can pertain only to matters of faith and morals.