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patg
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As an aside, is the story of Job history or fiction used as a teaching tool?The sacred writer did not make a mistake by rejectting the afterlife, because the sacred writer never did reject the afterlife.
As an aside, is the story of Job history or fiction used as a teaching tool?The sacred writer did not make a mistake by rejectting the afterlife, because the sacred writer never did reject the afterlife.
Its not a matter of belief - I have taken the classes, read the books, and had discussions with theologians and bible scholars and so I know what is being taught by the church.patg,
I’m sure you believe so.
Yes, it does. Because where the “rubber meets the road” - that is, when the catholics today get their education, the message is clearly one of literary form, cultural environment, and historical-critical analysis. You imply that I am personally coming up with heretical ideas - everything I profess has been gathered from catholic authors and teachers.But that doesn’t make it so.
A pope is not here teaching the adult ed or university classes, he is not writing the books used in those classes, and he is not preaching daily to the people. The scholars and leaders who are doing this have moved far from the “literal history” mode and making full use of the non-historical thrust of the papal writings you quote from. As has been noted before, there is a serious disconnect here and no quoting from papal documents will get the genie back in the bottle.Of the two of us, I am the only one who has quoted from a pope on the matter. Paul VI asserts the historicity of the infancy narratives (Allocution of Dec 18, 1966, Insegnamenti di Paolo VI). All opinions contrary to the See of Peter, notwithstanding.
not the teaching Church. He is not vested with magisterial authority, and as such Catholics are not bound to his opinion. We are bound, however, by canon law, to give our religious submission of intellect and will to the teachings of the diocesene bishop and the Roman Pontiff when they exercise their authentic teaching authority.Well, lets take this in a slightly different direction then (I assume the original poster of this thread won’t mind since they haven’t been heard from for a long time). Maybe we’re stuck on semantic arguments that we could clear up.Ya see, it really doesn’t matter what your religious education teacher is teaching. He is among the taught Church
Likewise, from the anthology readings from the same course, Fr. Ignace de la Potterie writes:inerrancy is defined as: "the theological concept that the Bible is free from errors, not just in faith and morals, but in all that pertains to and which God wished to teach for our salvation… Inerrancy flows from inspiration. So the whole Bible is thus inerrant. To say only parts are inerrant would mean only parts are inspired… One guiding principle is to discern the intention of the author… Looking at the overall thrust of the book is also necessary. The Evangelists did not intend to write a biography of Jesus. Thus they differed in some particulars. " (Fr. Leonard Obloy, *Introduction to Sacred Scritpure, *Second Edition, 1989).
[Some prior to Vatican II proposed] a *purely material limitation *of inerrancy to certain categories of texts: the truth of the Bible would only be guaranteed in those places where it teaches “faith or morals.” A distinction of this type is ill-chosen and artificial. It supposes a conception of revelation too highly intellectualist, as if God had only revealed himself to men by communicating some “truths”, some religious doctrines pertinent to faith and morals. The conciliar Constitution of Vatican II clearly moved beyond this conception and tells us that God revealed himself in words and deeds, “*gestis verbisque intrinsece inter se connexis” *(“in words and deeds instrinsically connected”).
Furthermore, a limitation of inerrancy to only “religious” matters seems to suppose that the Bible contains other material which would be “profane”–another unfortunate distinction! For the Bible is entirely inspired. How could it be admitted that God was able to inspire the holy authors to make them write purely profane things? Rather it is necessary to say that the word of God refers above all to the salvific design of God and that consequently, Scripture has always in some way a religious character… the truth of Scripture ought always to be considered from the viewpoint of the revelation of God’s salvific design, i.e., of the history of salvation. There can be no question then of only “religious truths” of the Bible (in the plural!) but the truth in the order of salvation, present everwhere in Scripture. From the viewpoint of the formal object of this truth, no material limitation ought to be introduced into the domain of biblical truth. In the particular perspective which was mentioned, everything in the Bible is free from error… it will be necessary always to insist on the fact that God has revealed himself throughout a true history, the history of salvation. But the facts recounted in the Bible are not there to instruct us in the profane history of the ancient East. They are there to make us know the divine plan of salvation progressively manifested in the course of this history. It is precisely this relationship of the biblical facts with the mystery of salvation which formally constitutes their “truth.”… The historicity of biblical events is guaranteed by inspiration when these events are related to the history of salvation and in the very measure in which they are related… We are saying … that the “truth” of Scripture presupposed the reality of the historical events when these touch on the mystery of salvation and insofar as they do. …
The first patristic text to which the Council has recourse it St. Augustine [cf. footnote #5]. To those who would seek in Scripture divine instruction on the composition of the world, Augustine answers that the Holy Spirit did not want to teach those things having no use for the salvation of men: “nulli sluti profutura (things that will be of no benefit to salvation).”… the Doctor of Hippo says in a more decisive manner elsewhere: “In the gospel one does not read that the Savior said: 'I am sending you the Paraclete who will teach you how the sun and the moon turn.” He wanted to form Christians, not mathematicians." Applying this principle to the realm of history we could say equivalently: the Holy Spirit did not want to instuct us precisely about … profane history but rather of the history of salvation. He wanted to make us Christians and not historians.
**## One is bound to the truth - no matter who says it. Bilge is to be shunned, even if all the Doctors & Fathers, Saints & Popes in creation affirm it. Rome does not have a monopoly on truth, wisdom, virtue, scholarship, insight, learning, probity, integrity, or any other good thing. **patg,
Do you have something from your bishop that teaches that Biblical inerrancy is limited to “faith and morals?” Just as I asked GottleofGeer, have you even asked your bishop what he teaches regarding inerrancy?
This is Catholic doctrine from Pope Pius XII: “some Catholic writers, in spite of this solemn definition of Catholic doctrine, by which such divine authority is claimed for the “entire books with all their parts” as to secure freedom from any error whatsoever, ventured to restrict the truth of Sacred Scripture solely to matters of faith and morals, and to regard other matters, whether in the domain of physical science or history, as “obiter dicta” and - as they contended - in no wise connected with faith, Our Predecessor of immortal memory, Leo XIII in the Encyclical Letter Providentissimus Deus, published on November 18 in the year 1893, justly and rightly condemned these errors and safe-guarded the studies of the Divine Books by most wise precepts and rules.” (Divino Afflante Spiritu). No Roman Pontiff since Pius XII has asserted otherwise. On the contrary, Pope John Paul II explicitly described this encyclical as having “permanent validity.”
Ya see, it really doesn’t matter what your religious education teacher is teaching. He is among the taught Church not the teaching Church. He is not vested with magisterial authority, and as such Catholics are not bound to his opinion. We are bound, however, by canon law, to give our religious submission of intellect and will to the teachings of the diocesene bishop and the Roman Pontiff when they exercise their authentic teaching authority.
I have shown where my Catholic post-graduate professors are teaching contrary to your assertions. Opinions vary. Yet my professor’s opinions are in agreement with papal encyclicals. And yet, they too are merely giving their opinion, even if they have an Nihil Obstat and Imprimatur of the bishop (which they do). In the final analysis, it is my bishop and the Roman Pontiff that I am bound to, not any biblical theorist, theologian, or religious educator.
## That is a most dangerous argument. The Pope’s word matters not a jot when he is wrong - as he was in 1332, for example. And has been since. That argument of Pius X’s raises “respect of persons” to a theological principle, and subjects truth to human respect. It is immoral. It puts a premium on the person of the Pope instead of on Christ, so it is anti-Christian. St. Thomas never disgraced himself by writing such things. ##This is especially important to remember when theorists, theologians, and educators teach contrary to the Roman Pontiff.
"If one loves the Pope, one does not stop to ask the precise limits to which this duty of obedience extends… one does not seek to restrict the domain within which he can or should make his wishes felt; one does not oppose to the Pope’s authority that of others, however learned they may be, who differ from him. For however great their learning, they must be lacking in holiness, for there can be no holiness in dissension from the Pope. Yet there are priests – a considerable number of them – who submit the word of the Pope to their private judgement and who, with unheard-of audacity, make their obedience to the Roman Pontiff conditional upon such personal judgement." (Pope St. Pius X, allocution of 18 November, 1912, AAS vol. 4 (1912), 693-695. Selection from p. 695)
patg & GottleofGeer,
itsjustdave1988 said:inerrancy is defined as:
"the theological concept that the Bible is free from errors, not just in faith and morals, but in all that pertains to and which God wished to teach for our salvation… "
That’s a ridiculous, unfounded leap of non-logic!*So the whole Bible is thus inerrant. *
Yes, I know the current and former bishops along with many priests. They are good people and good administrators. They are NOT bible scholars or interpreters by their own admission or by any stretch of the imagination. Their responsibilities do not include time for biblical research or studies and it has been many years since they were involved with such things.D you have something from your bishop that teaches that Biblical inerrancy is limited to “faith and morals?” Just as I asked GottleofGeer, have you even asked your bishop what he teaches regarding inerrancy?
Yes, I know the current and former bishops along with many priests. They are good people and good administrators. They are NOT bible scholars or interpreters by their own admission or by any stretch of the imagination. Their responsibilities do not include time for biblical research or studies and it has been many years since they were involved with such things.
That’s the reality and the pope is usually in the same posiiton. Popes aren’t chosen because of their depth of biblical scholarship, if that is even ever a consideration. The documents you throw around are at best confusing blends of competing philosophies which need some serious work.
itsjustdave1988 said:The pope and bishops are just too busy to be as knowledgeable as bible scholars?
I think its sad, but then that’s what the scholars are for in the giant bureaucracy we call the church. Reading the documents you quote has definitely strengthened that feeling in my mind.That’s too funny.
When did I demand this? I quoted from St. Pius X affirming the exact opposite. I suggest you pay closer attention to what I’m writing before asserting what it is I believe.you still demand we believe everything is history???
That’s it? He gave an imprimatur? Is that what you consider your proof of his affirming the Bible’s inerrancy is limited to faith and morals?Absolutely - try reading about their lives sometime. Most were chosen for diplomatic and political skills.
I think its sad, but then that’s what the scholars are for in the giant bureaucracy we call the church. Reading the documents you quote has definitely strengthened that feeling in my mind.
Our former bishop appointed the author of “And God Said What?” as the director of religious education for the diocese (and approved the book for use as instructional material). And I know what you think of her writing…
I’d really like your comments on my other post today…
This emphasis on “original text” is all very well/quote]
Actually, inerrancy is asserted with regard to the Divine writings “as left by the hariographers.” Nevertheless, the Church is infallible in its solemn and ordinary universal teaching authority. Your view is protestant. A Catholic trusts the ordinary universal magisterium and the teachings of the Roman Pontiff, because Catholicism teaches that for such teaching these words of Christ apply: “He who hears you, hears me.”
Pius XII, Humani Generis, 20
*
Nor must it be thought that what is expounded in Encyclical Letters does not of itself demand consent, since in writing such Letters the Popes do not exercise the supreme power of their Teaching Authority. For these matters are taught with the ordinary teaching authority, of which it is true to say: “He who heareth you, heareth me”;(Luke 10:16)"
Whether you disagree with the above Catholic teaching and subscribe to personal judgement contary to the teachings of the Roman Pontiff (ie. Protestantism), is your choice. But at least be honest with the choices you make and quit the pretense that you what you adhere to resembles Catholicism.
Actually, inerrancy is asserted with regard to the Divine writings “as left by the hariographers.” Nevertheless, the Church is infallible in its solemn and ordinary universal teaching authority. Your view is protestant. A Catholic trusts the ordinary universal magisterium and the teachings of the Roman Pontiff, because Catholicism teaches that for such teaching these words of Christ apply: “He who hears you, hears me.”This emphasis on “original text” is all very well
Then I guess the same could be said of St. Irenaeus, who affirmed that the Church in Rome, “because of its superior origin, all the churches must agree, that is, all the faithful in the whole world, and it is in her that the faithful everywhere have maintained the apostolic tradition” (Against Heresies 3:3:2 [A.D. 189]).Pius X had the ill-fortune to be living in a time when Pope-worship was all too common
Or of St. Catherine of Sienna who asserted:… care must be taken, that we hold that faith which has been believed everywhere, always, by all. For that is truly and in the strictest sense “Catholic,” which, as the name itself and the reason of the thing declare, comprehends all universally. This rule we shall observe if we follow universality, antiquity, consent. We shall follow universality if we confess that one faith to be true, which the whole Church throughout the world confesses; antiquity, if we in no wise depart from those interpretations which it is manifest were notoriously held by our holy ancestors and fathers; consent, in like manner, if in antiquity itself we adhere to the consentient definitions and determinations of all, or at the least of almost all priests and doctors." (Commonitory for the Antiquity and Universality of the Catholic Faith )
Or of Venerable John Henry Cardinal Newman, who affirmed in agreement with St. Robert Bellarmine:***For divine obedience never prevents us from obedience to the Holy Father: nay, the more perfect the one, the more perfect is the other. And we ought always to be subject to his commands and obedient unto death. However indiscreet obedience to him might seem, and however it should deprive us of mental peace and consolation, we ought to obey; and I consider that to do the opposite is a great imperfection, and deceit of the devil. ***(Letter to Brother Antonio of Nizza)
I say with Cardinal Bellarmine whether the Pope be infallible or not in any pronouncement, anyhow he is to be obeyed. No good can come from disobedience. His facts and his warnings may be all wrong; his deliberations may have been biassed. He may have been misled. Imperiousness and craft, tyranny and cruelty, may be patent in the conduct of his advisers and instruments. But when he speaks formally and authoritatively he speaks as our Lord would have him speak, and all those imperfections and sins of individuals are overruled for that result which our Lord intends (just as the action of the wicked and of enemies to the Church are overruled) and therefore the Pope’s word stands, and a blessing goes with obedience to it, and no blessing with disobedience.
[John Henry Newman “'The Oratory, Novr. 10, 1867”, The Genius of Newman (1914), by Wilfrid Ward, Vol II, Ch. 26, http://www.newmanreader.org/biography/ward/volume2/chapter26.html”]http://www.newmanreader.org/biography/ward/volume2/chapter26.html