Infallibility: Both Papal and Ecclesial

[MacroConnectome]

What are the necessary and sufficient conditions for papal and ecclesial infallibility? I’ve gotten conflicting answers from various Catholics, and the internet seems to be of little help.

In all the explanations given to me, there are some commonalities:

• It is necessary that the object of infallibility be a matter of faith and/or morals.
• It is sufficient that the subject be either the Pope himself, or the College of Bishops speaking collectively either throughout time or in council.

Some of the contradictions:

• It is sufficient that the object of infallibility be a matter of faith and/or morals.
• It is not sufficient that the object of infallibility be a matter of faith and/or morals (i.e. other conditions must be met before a church teaching is infallible).
• It is necessary that the Pope claim to be speaking infallibly (i.e. “Hey guys, listen up because what I’m about to say is infallible!”)

A little help in understanding this? Thanks

 

[Ender]

What are the necessary and sufficient conditions for papal and ecclesial infallibility? I’ve gotten conflicting answers from various Catholics, and the internet seems to be of little help.

In all the explanations given to me, there are some commonalities:

• It is necessary that the object of infallibility be a matter of faith and/or morals.
• It is sufficient that the subject be either the Pope himself, or the College of Bishops speaking collectively either throughout time or in council.

Some of the contradictions:

• It is sufficient that the object of infallibility be a matter of faith and/or morals.
• It is not sufficient that the object of infallibility be a matter of faith and/or morals (i.e. other conditions must be met before a church teaching is infallible).
• It is necessary that the Pope claim to be speaking infallibly (i.e. “Hey guys, listen up because what I’m about to say is infallible!”)

A little help in understanding this? Thanks

Read section 25 of Lumen Gentium.

vatican.va/archive/hist_councils/ii_vatican_council/documents/vat-ii_const_19641121_lumen-gentium_en.html

Ender

 

[svid2]

As best I understand it, the ‘Hey, listen up…’ is definitely necessary, as far as Papal infallibility is concerned.

 

[DavidFilmer]

Canon 749 §1 In virtue of his office the Supreme Pontiff is infallible in his teaching when, as chief Shepherd and Teacher of all Christ’s faithful, with the duty of strengthening his brethren in the faith, he proclaims by definitive act a doctrine to be held concerning faith or morals.

§2 The College of Bishops also possesses infallibility in its teaching when the Bishops, gathered together in an Ecumenical Council and exercising their magisterium as teachers and judges of faith and morals, definitively declare for the universal Church a doctrine to be held concerning faith or morals; likewise, when the Bishops, dispersed throughout the world but maintaining the bond of union among themselves and with the successor of Peter, together with the same Roman Pontiff authentically teach matters of faith or morals, and are agreed that a particular teaching is definitively to be held.

§3 No doctrine is understood to be infallibly defined unless this is manifestly demonstrated.

Paragraph 3 probably answers your question yet adds to your confusion. According to dictionary.com, the definition of “manifest(ly)” is:

readily perceived by the eye or the understanding; evident; obvious; apparent

Suffice it to be said that no doctrine may be considered infallibly promulgated if there is reasonable cause for doubt about the status of this doctrine. While some people might get out their Vatican I checklists and form opinions about the nature of various Church teachings, these conclusions are usually their own opinions (though they may be very good and well informed opinions).

The only way to know for sure if a particular teaching is infallible is if the Church explicitly says that the teaching is infallible. This is a rather rare thing.

But the infallible nature of a particular teaching is not really important to Catholics. Catholics are obliged to adhere to ALL of the teachings of the Church - whether infallibly promulgated or not. Catholics are not free to dismiss Magisterial teachings that do not happen to meet all of the criteria of infallibility. This is a topic that is of interest mainly in an academic sense to Catholic theologians.