Consider this from a Protestant anti-Catholic website:
Would it not be best to simply drop references to the alleged infallibility of the RCC? What exactly does this accomplish that is not already accomplished by the infallibility of the Scriptures?
Even granting ALL concessions to Rome, it cannot be denied that the very decision one must make regarding which infallible authority to follow is itself a FALLIBLE decision.
Any thoughts, Catholics? Thanks in advance.
Gaudium de veritate,
Don
+T+
There are multile questions here - all illogically formed.
Q:
**Would it not be best to simply drop references to the alleged infallibility of the RCC? **
A: Objectively speaking - NO.
Additional Comments:
“Best for who?” Best for those opposed to the notion of absolute and objective truth and a single Christian faith under one God and one Apostolic leader? Would it not be best for non-Catholic’s alleging themselves to be “Christian” to simply drop all pretenses of being of one faith and one accord and admit that the bible is not self teaching?
Q:
What exactly does this accomplish that is not already accomplished by the infallibility of the Scriptures?
A: The assumptions in this question are themselves fallable therefor the question is disordered. Scripture is only infallable when it it TAUGHT from an authoritative apostolic teaching.
Additional Comments:
What is accomplished by fallible men in alleging the popular secular myth that scripture without authoritative teaching is infallable? This is a non-sequitur. How can fallible men declare something to be infallable?
What is accomplished in formally declaring papal infallability in the very narrow area of formal Catholic teachings on “faith and morals” is exercising the ecclesial authority given to The Church by The Lord. Thus we can objectively know “those who are with us and those who are against us” by those who choose to follow somone else’s secular teaching to seperate themselves from The Church.
Assertion:
Even granting ALL concessions to Rome, it cannot be denied that the very decision one must make regarding which infallible authority to follow is itself a FALLIBLE decision.
Response:
This is a disordered assertion made by a person who does not believe in infallibility - which is itself irrational and self-contradictory. “Granting all concessions” to The Holy See requires obedience and subscription to Church Teaching. Therefor the assertion is clearly insincere since the person is trying to take back the concessions he granted. Further, logical disorder is seen in the underlying assumption that there can be no objective truth since by definition “authority” implies a singular standard. Where there is a system that assumes multiple authorities (or no authority) there is a system that assumes multiple truths and chaos - that is an illogical assumption.
The premise that all Christians hope in is that there is only ONE TRUTH - not legions of truth (as contradicted by the 32,000+ seperate Protestant denominational sects all teaching different truths). Christianity was not conceived to be a flee market of competing ideals and truths with each booth free to distill their own truth from the same well spring (“the bible”?). The neo-Christian phenomena of Protestantism just proves through its disorder that only one ecclesial authority can exist. That authority is an “ecclesial office” made up of divinely chosen men (the apostolic succession). Authority does not exist in and of itself in “the bible” but rather it is in the corpus of “The Church” and ecclesial authority originally given by Christ Himself (as mentioned in the bible) and passed on to successive bishops through physical “laying on of hands” and apostolic blessing.
The only logical notion the questioner puts forth are that people can make bad decisions in following the wrong faith. But this has nothing do to with invalidating the notion of infallable authority. Is the assertor trying to claim that the apostolic authority itself could be deceived by following its own original teachings given by Christ Himself and The Apostles? Or is the assertor trying to admit that some can be deceived by false teachers (non-Catholics) just as Jesus warned?
James