Infallible list of infallible teachings

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A simple way to understand infallibility is this:

The Pope’s statements are not final because they are infallible…instead they are infallible because they are final (ie. there is no higher authority on earth). Thus until or unless a subsequent Pope clarifies or rejects that of a previous Pope, his decrees, encyclicals, etc must be considered the final word.
 
If, again, our esteemed debater, is truly a Berean as I outlined above, he has tied one of arms behind his back. He has no idea of how the New Testament came about based on his own limited criteria. And because of that, he has no concept of who and what the True Church Jesus established in the New Testament really is.

All he is left with is the Old Testament and his own individual fallible theories.
I don’t know a Christian today that would try to build the entire doctrine of the Church from the OT as the Apostles did.
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Getting back to the OP, I ask again: How many infallible teachings in the RCC are there?
The Catholic Church is not “Roman”.
One person in this thread has said there is only one he knows of. Any other takers? It’s a valid question.
Everything that Jesus gave to the Church is infallible. These come through the Aposltes, and the Church councils, and ex - cathedra statements.

How is it valid? Is there some reason that Jesus’ teachings need to be divided up and assigned numbers in order for them to be “valid” in your eyes?
If infallible dogmas are important to Catholics–and I’m sure you’ll agree they are–then it must be also important to know which teachings are infallible.
Most Catholics don’t understand the various levels of authority in the Church.

I am not sure if you use the link at the top of the thread that says “view first unread” so it is possible that you have missed some posts. One of the posts you may have missed is the one that says the Catechism is a good summary of the Teachings of the Apostles preserved infallibly in the Church by the Holy Spirit. This document is written topically, however, and is not in the form of a “list”. Jesus never made any attempt to create a “list” of HIs teachings, so why would we?
From that it follows that Catholics should be able to identify those infallible teachings without disagreement, which also means there should be an agreed-upon number of said teachings as well as agreement on what they are.
Sorry Koine, you may have also missed the post that stated that the Teachings of the Apostles are not a matter of popular acclaim or agreement. They are teachings that were delivered once for all to the Church. They are not defined by “agreed upon” opinions of modern day persons, nor are they defined by the persons who reject them. There is One Faith, and we are not at liberty to pick and choose which ones are acceptable or not.

Your assertion that there should be no “disagreement” is absurd. It seems pretty clear all through the New Testament that there has never been “agreement” about the teachings of Jesus.
You have either misunderstood my point in bringing up the example of the Bereans or have not read what I was responding to. My point in mentioning the Bereans was that the idea of testing the teaching of another using Scripture is validated in the Bible. It has nothing to do with the extent of that Scripture.
Oh I think we got your point just fine. What we are disputing is your interpretation of the text. You see, when we read it, it seems clear to us that the Bereans were “more noble” because they received the Apostolic message with eagerness. THEN they went to the scriptures to validate what they had heard. This is not how SS folks function, though. They attempt to extract the Apostolic message from the scriptures first, before hearing the message from those to whom Christ committed it.
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You really have to ignore the plain meaning of the text to come to that conclusion. Let's look at it:
“Now these were more noble-minded than those in Thessalonica, for they received the word with great eagerness, examining the Scriptures daily to see whether these things were so.
 
What you’ve done is reversed the meaning. It doesn’t say that they used the apostolic preaching to interpret anything.

Well, that is your understanding, and I can accept that you interpret the message differently. But what we have from the Aposltes is that Jesus taught them how to understand them from His point of view. Paul and the other Apostles preached the Gospel and used the OT to validate it. The Bereans received this Apostolic understanding of the Scriptures “with eagerness” and took to their scriptures to read the passages that were cited in the light of this new “lens”.
Nothing even hinting that is mentioned. What it does say, however, is that they used the Scriptures to see if what was orally spoken was true.
If someone quoted scriptures to you that you had always read and understood from a different point of view, would you not go back and read them again from the new point of view? The new point of view that was eagerly received by the Bereans was the Apostolic/Christain perspective.

The Christian message is only found in the OT in seed form, so they could not possibly have been checking the OT to see if the message of the NT gospel was true. People were not looking for what was not there! They were looking at the scriptures in the context of what was preached about Jesus.
This is a perfect example of what I mentioned earlier about multiple interpretations not proving that a text is insufficient.
Materially sufficient, but not formally sufficient. It is exactly this dynamic that proves an authorative interpretation is needed.
We have the meaning of the text as plain as day, and yet, nevertheless, its meaning is twisted to mean the exact opposite of what was intended.
We see it differently, because we are reading it though the lens of those who wrote it.
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Scriptures that I bring up, however, are being ignored and twisted. And that makes me conclude that this discussion is entirely unprofitable.
It may be. If your goal was to convert us to to your different gospel, I can assure you that it is entirely unprofitable. 😃
No, they apply completely to this discussion. You’re just splitting hairs to try to put the RCC above the problem of having conflicting interpretations. I’m not buying it.
The Catholic Church is not “Roman”.

The Church allows for any interpretations that are consistent with the Apostolic kerygma that we have received. Believers have broad brush of private interpretations, so long as they stay within the boundaries of the One Faith. Individuals who defy Church teaching are not those by whom it is defined. We don’t reject what Jesus taught because other people walked away from His teachings.
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  The issue of how many infallible teachings there are, and which they are, and whether Catholics agree on those two questions, is extremely fitting for this thread and a perfectly reasonable question.
Why is this an issue for you? If you were to sit down and separate out all of Jesus’ teachings and assign numbers to them, how would that solve your problem?

Why does it matter to you whether “Catholics agree”? This is entirely irrelevant. The Church is not a matter of human agreement! She is founded by Christ, and He decides what Teachings she will have, not some majority agreeemnt.
 
Paul was not addressing that issue in this passage, and it doesn’t seem to enter his mind at all. I’m simply trying to honor the text and not make it say something it does not.
Im sure you believe that last sentence, but the truth of the matter is that the statement says nothing about how the Scriptures are useful: it does not say whether they are useful by being directly read by the one who is to be equipped; it does not say whether it is expected that another person use Scripture to instruct the unlearned. It basically is an incomplete affirmation that Scripture, when used in an undefined manner, is useful for training, rebuking, etc and that these ends (training, rebuking, etc) fully equip one. You have, rather than “honor to the text and not making it say something it does not”, instead projected your theology (ie SS private interpretation) - again - into the text in arriving at the conclusion that a personal - or otherwise - reading of Scripture is what is implied in 2Tim.

blessings!
 
So far, though, nobody has answered it. I find that to be very revealing.
The fact that it has been answered many times on this thread, even by myself, makes it seem like you have a serious bias against any answer that makes you uncomfortable. You sound like you already have an answer in mind and want us to say something to agree with you.

I am not sure how clearly I can say it more than this. ALL CHURCH TEACHINGS ON FAITH AND MORALS ARE INFALLIBLE. ITS LAWS, WHILE NOT INFALLIBLE, REQUIRE ASSENT OF THE WILL.
I think you hit that nail on he head, Eufrosnia. I don’t think Koine likes the answer, and it really does seem like something else is actually being sought.

Koineman the answer to your which of the Church Teachings are infallible is ALL OF THEM.
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 Paul was not addressing that issue in this passage, and it doesn't seem to enter his mind at all. I'm simply trying to honor the text and not make it say something it does not. It had been said that Paul's point in this passage was that his teachings plus Scripture were sufficient, but that is not what the text says.
So, you are trying to derive a dogmatic truth from one verse of scripture?

You are right, that is not what this passage says. On the contrary, the passage says that Scripture is profitable in equipping the saints. I urge you to go back to post 180 and see if you can get your mind to do a 180,so you will understand how this passage fits in with others that are talking about the same subject.
This is an area where Catholics often get confused when discussing this text. It must be borne in mind that this passage discusses the sufficiency of Scripture, not the extent of the canon of Scripture.
We are not confused, Koine. The CC teaches (as you will find in the Catechism if you are willing to look) that Scripture is materially sufficient. What we are disputing is your claim that it is formally sufficient, which the passage in Ephesians shows is not a correct interpretation of the passage.
Well, again, it speaks to the sufficiency of the Old Testament, if we are to speak of sufficiency at all.

You seem to be arguing for Sola Old Testament, which is a treacherous position to take for a Christian.
Good point PR! if the OT is sufficient for the first Christians, then why do we need the NT?
 
Of course it depends on the defenition of infallible. The popes first defined themselves as infallible during the 1st Vatican council. The only infallible definition since then was the Dogma of the Assumption in 1950.
Nothing is dogmatically proclaimed that was not present in the once for all deposit of faith made to the Church in the first century.

There is a big diffference between ex -cathedra statements (which are also infallible) and the ordinary teachings regarding the doctrine of the faith, which are also infallible.

He is not asking about ex cathedra statements.
 
It basically is an incomplete affirmation that Scripture, when used in an undefined manner, is useful for training, rebuking, etc and that these ends (training, rebuking, etc) fully equip one.
Interesting point, but the training, rebuking, etc. are based on Scripture and dependent on it, since it says that Scripture is “profitable” for those things. In other words, one must make use of Scripture to perform those acts of rebuking, training, etc. We certainly wouldn’t say that a winning lottery ticket is profitable for winning money but then suppose that in order to win that lottery money, one need not use that ticket.

So those acts are dependent on, and drawn from, the Scriptures, and that is exactly what SS affirms!
 
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Koineman:
Interesting point, but the training, rebuking, etc. are based on Scripture and dependent on it, since it says that Scripture is “profitable” for those things. In other words, one must make use of Scripture to perform those acts of rebuking, training, etc. We certainly wouldn’t say that a winning lottery ticket is profitable for winning money but then suppose that in order to win that lottery money, one need not use that ticket.

So those acts are dependent on, and drawn from, the Scriptures, and that is exactly what SS affirms!

No. SS adds something: that it is Scripture ALONE that is the source for all God’s revelation.

This is false.

It is also self-refuting.

And even you can’t follow SS because you claim that the Gospel of Mark is inspired, and you know this through one source only: Sacred Tradition.
 
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Koineman:
Interesting point, but the training, rebuking, etc. are based on Scripture and dependent on it, since it says that Scripture is “profitable” for those things. In other words, one must make use of Scripture to perform those acts of rebuking, training, etc. We certainly wouldn’t say that a winning lottery ticket is profitable for winning money but then suppose that in order to win that lottery money, one need not use that ticket.

So those acts are dependent on, and drawn from, the Scriptures, and that is exactly what SS affirms!

Again where in the Scriptures does it say that it is the sole source for anything. Profitable and useful are not the same thing. St. Paul tells us, “15 Therefore, brethren, stand fast; and hold the traditions which you have learned, whether by word, or by our epistle.16 Now may our Lord Jesus Christ Himself and God our Father, who has loved us and given us eternal comfort and good hope by grace,17 comfort and strengthen your hearts in every good work and word.”

Now I have quoted here the two verses beyond the one you’ve not yet answered about St. Paul instructing us to hold fast to oral (word) and written traditions (Traditio, to hand on) because in a previous post you asserted that the Bible (alone) was to be the source of every good work. Here we see St. Paul asking the our Lord Jesus Christ Himself, and God our Father strengthen our hearts in every good work. Another example of how as Catholics we do not proof text and say, Well look at this verse it proves our point. But taking the Scriptures as a whole we come to understand God’s plan.

We see first that the traditions, (teachings passed on) are both oral and written, and then we see that Our Lord is who strengthens our hearts in every good work and word. We are left to take the Catholic position that either the verse used by Protestants to say that the Scripture is the Only source for these things is correct, then verse 17 here must be wrong, or that Both the Bible and our Lord are the sources of every good work… Just as both Oral Tradition, and the Bible are the sources from which we derive doctrinal and moral teaching.

You’ve also not commented on the numerous posts which show that the Bible teaches that we are to be subject to the Leaders of the Church. Nor the posts which show how it is anti-biblical to reject the authority Jesus gave the leaders of the Church and interpret scripture using private judgement. Is the whole Bible true, or just the “proof texts” that we can use to make our own opinion possible?
 
Ah. I see, then.

I stand corrected.

It does appear that the Angelic Doctor did indeed have no problem with the execution of heretics.

To which I respond thusly:

So I guess the pictures you post are of random persons. I cant see you go from the first one to the second 🙂

But we have to be careful to not go by our gut reactions. One must follow reason and in the case of this issue, St. Thomas Aquinas’s reasoning is quiet clear. Does it mean that the Church should start an inquisition today and burn heretics? Definitely not. But it is an option and perhaps an inquisition with life imprisonment is something to consider 😃 Even then, the Church lacks the secular influence it had back in those days. So that will obviously not happen anytime soon as well.
 
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Koineman:
Interesting point, but the training, rebuking, etc. are based on Scripture and dependent on it, since it says that Scripture is “profitable” for those things. In other words, one must make use of Scripture to perform those acts of rebuking, training, etc. We certainly wouldn’t say that a winning lottery ticket is profitable for winning money but then suppose that in order to win that lottery money, one need not use that ticket.

So those acts are dependent on, and drawn from, the Scriptures, and that is exactly what SS affirms!

Well no, Scripture does not state that it is the only source. All Divine Revelation is required for the life of a believer. Even human laws are required for the life of the believer. The Church merely draws from the Divine Revelation to teach the faithful as well as govern them by making laws to best safeguard the faith.

This Divine revelation is not found ONLY in Scripture. That is the mistake of SS. The Divine Revelation is found in Scripture & Tradition. Scripture is merely the subset of Divine Revelation that was codified in to text.

So this is why the usual non-Catholic objection “Is it in Scripture?” carries no weight in Catholic thought. It may well not be in Scripture, perhaps explicitly, but it would be in Tradition.
 
A simple way to understand infallibility is this:

The Pope’s statements are not final because they are infallible…instead they are infallible because they are final (ie. there is no higher authority on earth). Thus until or unless a subsequent Pope clarifies or rejects that of a previous Pope, his decrees, encyclicals, etc must be considered the final word.
👍

They are final because they are representative of the whole Church, “…and if he does not listen to the Church…”.

peace
steve
 
Interesting point, but the training, rebuking, etc. are based on Scripture and dependent on it, since it says that Scripture is “profitable” for those things.
Actually, it does not say that either, Koine. Paul was instructing Gentile converts who had no experience in Scripture, or very little. His teaching authority was not predicated upon Scripture, but upon Jesus.
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It also does not say that the teaching is "dependent" upon scripture. You are reading this into the verse (eisegesis).  Your last statemen is accurate. Scripture is profitable in these tasks.  :thumbsup:
In other words, one must make use of Scripture to perform those acts of rebuking, training, etc.
It does not say that either, Koine. Profitable does not equate to “depends upon it”.

Your position of reading these concepts into the verse is consistent with your theological background. Since Protestants have been separated from the equally authorative Sacred Tradition, there is noting else upon which they can depend, so they become overdependent.

If there were no scripture, there would still be a church, and Jesus would still be the Head.
We certainly wouldn’t say that a winning lottery ticket is profitable for winning money but then suppose that in order to win that lottery money, one need not use that ticket.
Certainly we would not. But we are not saying that Scripture should not be used profitably. we are saying that the verse does not say what you have been trying to make it say. Christians need more than a Bible to walk the right path. We need the Church, to whom God has gifted the tasks of equipping the saints.
So those acts are dependent on, and drawn from, the Scriptures, and that is exactly what SS affirms!
Catholics and SS will agree on many doctrines about the Holy Scripture. We agree that it is the inspired and inerrant Word of God. We agree that doctrine must be consistent with what is written within, but we cannot support the practice of forcing Scripture into a role that was never intended for it. Authority requires will, intellect, the ability to discern and take responsibility for one’s actions. These qualities do not belong to writings, however Holy.
 
I sent you a PM a little while ago. I told you in that PM to feel free to start a thread on this, and I’ll discuss it with you. I have the Catholic edition of Logos, so I can certainly do some looking. Last night, in fact, I already came across an interesting comment from Tertullian. But now that I think of it, I’ll start the thread. I’ll call it “The ECFs: SS or STC?”
Cool!
Only if STC is, in fact, the preexisting position. We’ll delve into that in our other thread.
OK, you’re not conceding the point. But I already gave you evidence which you seemed willing to work with that it STC was preexistent, including summaries of the history of doctrine by recognized authorities in the field, the Ecumenical Councils, and the EOC reaction to SS.

The thread sounds great, but how will you include the Ecumenical Councils of the undivided church? They are also a witness to the faith and practice of the ancient church. This is, after all, what we are trying to establish.
SS–and you have yet to address this issue squarely–does not mean “The Bible is the only and sufficient rule of faith.” It means, by of the nature of reading a text, my interpretation of the Bible alone here in 2013 is the only and sufficient rule of faith. So again the factual question: is this what is taught and portrayed by the NT authors taken as a whole, the Fathers, and the Ecumenical Councils so that it is more reasonable to abandon STC?

That’s your conclusion of SS, but it’s not historically what it means.

To me this sounds like a non-answer. I realize that is what you assert. But how do you show that the ultimate rule to determine of the content of God’s revelation to all humanity is not your individual interpretation of the Bible alone here in 2013? You have yet to spell this out.
But what does this show? SS does not deny the need for teachers, oral teaching in the church, etc. Also, let’s stick to what the text actually says. Paul does NOT say that it’s his teaching plus the Scriptures that are sufficient; he just says Scripture.
I’m assuming you’re not going to address the rest of the data I presented from Paul.

What the other data from Paul I cited and that of the rest of the NT shows is that the oral tradition of teaching and preaching of the word in the Church beginning with the apostles and Pentecost, that saved people, that was the word of God, worked conjointly with Scripture in the Church to hand on divine revelation. It was never Scripture alone, and absolute never Scripture interpreted by the individual to call into question the tradition taught by the church that they received and lived in as members of the body of Christ.

The NT view of Scripture in relation to the apostolic tradition of preaching and teaching is expressed by Luke in the introduction to his Gospel (1:3-4): “I too have decided, after investigating everything accurately anew, to write it down in an orderly sequence for you, most excellent Theophilus, so that you may realize the certainty of the teachings you have received.” Luke’s written gospel serves to reinforce and spell out what he or “eye witnesses and ministers of the word” taught, not call it into question. Paul’s letters likewise reinforce, reaffirm, and further spell out some things he taught, not call them into question. Scripture and Tradition are not in an antagonistic relation with each other unless one has already adopted sola scriptura.

Actually Paul does say his teaching AND the scriptures (=OT) are sufficient. Look at the context: Paul’s warning Timothy about false teachers and the lies they spread (3:1-9, 12-13). He then launches into what Timothy has and needs to protect himself and teach others the truth. “You have followed my teaching, way of life, purpose, faith, patience, love, endurance . . . . But you, remain faithful to what you have learned and believed, because you know from whom you learned it, AND that from infancy you have known the sacred scriptures, which are capable of giving you wisdom for salvation through faith in Christ Jesus.” Then he notes the inspiration of scripture and its purposes and concludes that with all of these Timothy has all he needs.
No, of course not. But if your mom packed everything you needed for camping in your backpack, not just the flashlight, then you’d be fully equipped. That is the meaning in 2 Tim. 3.
As per the above and the rest of Paul’s teaching and practice regarding how God’s word, the gospel, is transmitted, I think not. You can’t take one verse in isolation from the import of a whole paragraph let alone all of Paul’s teaching and absolutize it.

If I may suggest a methodological principle which I affirm; and it would help to know where you stand with it. To understand what an author teaches on a subject, what he is trying to get across, one must explore and take into consideration all that he teaches, and portrays, and practices that is germane to the area under investigation. Call it the principle of total evidence. This includes literary and historical context. Ultimately this also includes forming a view of import of all the NT authors’ teaching.
 
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Koineman:
Interesting point, but the training, rebuking, etc. are based on Scripture and dependent on it, since it says that Scripture is “profitable” for those things. In other words, one must make use of Scripture to perform those acts of rebuking, training, etc. We certainly wouldn’t say that a winning lottery ticket is profitable for winning money but then suppose that in order to win that lottery money, one need not use that ticket.

So those acts are dependent on, and drawn from, the Scriptures, and that is exactly what SS affirms!
I guess that we will need to go over this issue yet again to honestly determine what Paul’s letter does and does not say…
But you, remain faithful to what you have learned and believed, because you know from whom you learned it,*(“http://www.usccb.org/bible/2timothy/3#63003014-i”) 15and that from infancy you have known [the] sacred scriptures, which are capable of giving you wisdom for salvation through faith in Christ Jesus.j
OK, first context: remain faithful to what you have learned and believed- and why do that? Because you know whom you have learned it from: a trusted, authoritative source, namely a person - Paul. That is the first thing Paul speaks of: trusting in his teaching as a trustworthy, authoritative teacher. Only then does he go on to say, in reference to the sacred scriptures (clearly OT reference btw), that they are capable of giving you wisdom for salvation. Capable is the word he chooses; not necessary, not mandatory, not definitive, not solely, not primarily - merely that they are capable of giving you wisdom for salvation. Only then does he go on to say…
16* All scripturek is inspired by God and is useful for teaching, for refutation, for correction, and for training in righteousness,
OK, so Paul adds that in addition to being “capable”, Scripture is “useful” for teaching, for refutation, for correction and for training in righteousness. Again, the term is “useful” - not exclusively, not primary, not mandatory, not definitively and not necessary…he simply says it is useful for accomplishing teaching, correction, and training in righteousness. I don’t mean to belittle Scripture’s role here, I’m just summarizing what Paul does and does not say. He then adds…
17so that one who belongs to God may be competent, equipped for every good work.
Above all here, the first thing one must recognize is that it is the “teaching…refutation…correction and …training” which may “make one competent, equipped for every good work”; and it is not Scripture which accomplishes these things. Scripture is “capable” and “useful” toward that end, but that is it. Again, I don’t want to belittle Scripture in any way, but I do think it’s important to clearly address these points to someone who erroneously asserts that “those acts are dependent on, and drawn from, the Scriptures, and that is exactly what SS affirms!” The truth is that no, they are not “dependent on” Scripture and they aren’t even necessarily “drawn from” Scripture - unless, of course, one has cut themselves off from the fullness of truth through which God accomplishes these things. Scripture is “capable” and “useful” in teaching, rebuking, correcting and training, but that is it. And for what it’s worth, tradition is useful and capable of doing the same thing.
 
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I guess that we will need to go over this issue yet again to honestly determine what Paul's letter does and does not say...
I love the way you explained this. I am going to save it in my file. 😃
 
One more point regarding 2 Tim 3 and SS that I alluded to but probably should have made explicit.

When Paul speaks to Timothy about the scriptures that he knew from his infancy Paul can only mean the OT . . . really, less than that. There was no Jewish OT canon then. There was a closed collection of Law, a closed collection of Prophets, and a large number of disparate Jewish religious writings only some of which would later be in the Jewish canon.

If Paul is forming Timothy to combat the opponents of the truth he discusses earlier, how on earth could that set of writings possibly be sufficient for him, a Christian? The formation of Timothy that Paul is outlining has to include his oral preaching and teaching AND the Jewish writings or Timothy, a Christian, is not at all fully equipped.

This is one more piece of evidence in addition to Paul’s overall portrayal and teaching about how the gospel is handed on.
 
This is one more piece of evidence in addition to Paul’s overall portrayal and teaching about how the gospel is handed on.
Indeed.

And we know that St. Paul preached in the temple for 3 months.

[BIBLEDRB]Acts 19:8 [/BIBLEDRB]

Logic dictates that everything he preached could not have been secured in the written page.

However, Sacred Tradition can accommodate all that he preached but was not confined to parchment.
 
Indeed.

And we know that St. Paul preached in the temple for 3 months.

[BIBLEDRB]Acts 19:8 [/BIBLEDRB]

Logic dictates that everything he preached could not have been secured in the written page.

However, Sacred Tradition can accommodate all that he preached but was not confined to parchment.
Especially since the apostles and NT authors expressly state that not everything that Jesus or the apostles taught or did was written down in scripture [Jn 16:12-13; 20:30-31; 21:24-25; 1 Cor 11:34; Philip 4:9; 2 Jn 12; 3 Jn 13-14].

And there is no express proposition in the NT stating that everything taught by the apostles that God wanted humanity to have and transmit was written down. In fact, as per above, the NT suggests just the opposite.
 
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