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Church_Militant
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That’s the whole point. Infant baptism is an implicit teaching in the Bible, in much the same way as the Trinity is. I discuss this in an article on my blog. The Case For Infant Baptismwhy is that? I understand that the term Trinity is not in the Bible, however the Trinity is reveled in the Bible.
Yet I can find absolutely no scriptural basis for this and I doubt you can either. However, we do have that implicit teaching of the Word of God already. Which do you think is the authoritative one?it varies from person to person; the age, in a way, is established by the individual.
Where is that in the Word of God?in a way yes you could say the child establishes the age.
Where did a Jewish baby boy have any such understanding of such things when he was circumcised on his 8th day? Yet that is precisely what God commanded for him to enter into the salvation covenant and that community of faith. See a precedent here?I would certainly agree with this statement, but do you or any of us fully understand anything to do with God? but does the 8 year old have a understanding of sin and salvation?
Again, I cite my case above. What do you suppose it means when it says that “whole households” were baptized? That would plainly cover everyone would it not? And that is what the New Testament says, and what the early church practiced. (See my article for the reference to the Martyrdom of Polycarp).you would not be having your son baptized your son would be accepting Christ and wanting to be Baptized himself.