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Nan_S
Guest
OK, I’ve checked your link. It says nothing about the married or unmarried state of the couple. I then went looking for any source document that states the church rejects the use of condoms by married couples to prevent AIDS transmission between spouses.The church has been clear that condoms are not allowed in married couples where one has a disease. The UN for instance has been very outspoken that the Vatican is enabling the spread of HIV because it continues to disallow the use of condoms. They put a barrier between the couple preventing the full gift of self which must occur when the husband gifts his wife during the marital act. The unitive aspect involves the one flesh union of spouses. This cannot be accomplished with a barrier.
One article on HIV and condoms.
lifesite.net/ldn/2006/may/06050502.html
What I found was this, the Vatican’s statement Family Values Versus Safe Sex.
vatican.va/roman_curia/pontifical_councils/family/documents/rc_pc_family_doc_20031201_family-values-safe-sex-trujillo_en.html
This Vatican document stresses is the value of pre-marital chastity and marital fidelity as methods to prevent AIDS, and the high unreliability of condoms in preventing AIDS. Unfortunately, the solution advanced relates to disease-free individuals becoming and staying disease-free couples. It also does NOT address the situation of a married couple when one spouse is already diseased and the other is not.
This question posed to me by an RCIA candidate concerned a non-Catholic couple she knew. [Yes, I know that since they are not Catholic the church’s rules are no imposed on them.] However, the RCIA candidate posed the question anyway. “What if the couple in question was Catholic, what would the Church answer?”, and a legitimate question deserves a legitimate answer
Her question: The husband in a certain recently-married couple had a sinful past. He turned from his sinful life, chose to be a Christian, found himself a worthy wife, and they were married. At that time he was medically tested and believed himself to be free of disease. About a year later he was tested again and found to be HIV-positive. This delay in diagnosis is not unreasonable, since the virus can have a long incubation period. As of now, the wife has not tested positive for HIV and may not have contracted the virus. However, since the virus is now definitely active in the husband, continuation of “unprotected” marital relations will almost certainly result in transmitting the disease to the wife.
Humanae Vitae says:
Lawful Therapeutic Means
15. On the other hand, the Church does not consider at all illicit the use of those therapeutic means necessary to cure bodily diseases, even if a foreseeable impediment to procreation should result there from—provided such impediment is not directly intended for any motive whatsoever. (19)
Now, if the couple in question WERE Catholic, what could they do and how could they minimize the risk transmitting HIV to the wife?
- Get a divorce and seek an annulment? This would prevent her from catching HIV in the future, but would also abandon him in his time of need.
- Live as married celibates, denying themselves all future access to the unitive benefits of the marital act?
- Have relations occasionally and use condoms? Although condoms certainly will not prevent transmission of the virus, they can significantly lessen her exposure.