So…when a Catholic couple is infertile, does every marital act still need to be procreative and unitive…even though procreation isn’t happening? This doesn’t make sense to me.
That must be their intention, even if the “plumbing” doesn’t work just right. If it weren’t, people past the age of reproducing wouldn’t be allowed to get married, which they certainly may. Couples don’t have to produce as many babies as they can–the Church doesn’t care how many children couples have. It only asks they be open to having children and not prevent it except for “grave reasons”, such as health or poverty, etc.
Infertile people can be as open as anyone to procreation - possibly even more, in a sense, given how many yearn for it, while it isn’t happening. The fact it does not happen is not their fault.
So…when a Catholic couple is infertile, does every marital act still need to be procreative and unitive…even though procreation isn’t happening? This doesn’t make sense to me.
Yes, every marital act must be *ordered *to procreation or it is disordered.
The subjective condition of the couple’s generative organs doesn’t change that. A sterile couple who engages in sodomy, manual/oral masterbatory acts, etc, is no different than a fertile couple who engages in those acts, or homosexuals who engage in those acts. It is the acts themselves that are disordred, it is not dependent upon whether the couple is capable of conception.
DISCLAIMER: Catholic Answers has turned over the archive to Catholic-Questions.org and no longer owns, manages, or moderates the forums. For additional apologetics resources please visit www.catholic.com.