Inquisition

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The church has not said that using physical force is intrinsically evil. Parents use physical force to discipline their children, and that is a good thing in most circumstances. Putting a limit on “torture”( which is a loaded word with negative connotations to describe the use of force), means that some physical force is acceptible as long as it is not excessive. Therefore, the church has not contradicted itself. So I’ve answered in a very roundabout way, no, the Church does not say one thing and then another. It is not a radical break.
 
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Petergee:
I understand the current consensus among mainstream secular historians is that a grand total of about 3000 people were killed following adverse findings by the Inquisition. That’s less than one per month. An infringement of human rights, certainly. But why do some people focus on this relatively minor infringement of centuries ago when atrocities thousands of times worse are happening in our own time?
My only disagreement with above is the number. Secular historians, Catholic and Non-Catholic, put the total at 8,800. However Jewish historians, several of them Rabbis, put the figure at 2000. Which begs the question, are they only counting the Jews that suffered? I doubt that's the case since the Inquisition was directed basicly at Jews, secondly at Moors. As far as as those naughty words Heresy and Heritic that surface regularly in most threads. When some writers can't respond with reason they resort to those words. According to our Churchs defination at that time, anyone who did not believe in Jesus was a Heritic.(Surprise, surprise to some of you, I am a Roman Catholic) To continue, Jews were therefor Heritics. To it's credit, the Church has modifed that strict definition and now go by degrees of Heresy. I can only repeate what I said before, put this subject to bed. Lest an Anti- Catholic surfing these threads pick up on it. If that happens those of you putting spin, will be the first to scream foul. Thanks for your time. Dan
 
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mercygate:
The use of physical “persuasion” – not taking life or endangering life or limb – would not be “intrinsically evil.” and those were the rules of the Inquisition.
Any physical persuasion is contrary to the teaching of the Church, as contained in the Catechism of the Catholic Church.
 
Confinement is physical persuasion. That is the whole point of encarceration.
 
(Singinbeauty) the church still let the government do these things in it’s name.
No it didn’t. Firstly, the State executed heretics in its own name because it saw heresy as a threat to the good of the State. The State contracted the Inquisitors to find out if a person was a heretic, because they were the experts in that field. What you’re saying is equivalent to “In the USA, Crime Scene Investigators execute people for murder” or “The US executes people for murder in the name of Forensic Medicine.”
Secondly, the popular idea that the Popes virtually told Catholic kings what to do and they did it , was NEVER true. The strongest thing a Pope could do was excommunicate a king for persistent sin or heresy, and this frequently had no effect on the behaviour of the excommunicated king.
Thirdly and most importantly, the Inquisition was set up at the Pope’s direction for the specific purpose of SAVING the lives of people accused of being heretics or “witches” who would otherwise have been summarily executed by the State. The Inquisition gave them a much fairer trial, legal representation, much better gaol conditions, much less torture (it was the Inquisition itself which first proposed the idea of abolishing torture altogether) and much less chance of being convicted and executed. In countries which had no Inquisition, the State executed many thousands of accused “witches”. The Inquisitions regarded almost all accused “witches” as innocent.
(Mercygate) Nobody today condones torture
Not quite nobody. Last year a distinguished Australian academic quite seriously proposed that torture be used to combat terrorism. And then of course there was Abu Ghraib.
(Catilieth) St. Paul himself condoned slavery; he returned a runaway slave to his master! Never once was anything said against slavery in the Gospels, and in fact slaves were explicitly told to obey their masters. It took 1500 years before Christian realize that slavery was an offense against human dignity
Slavery in the ancient Mediterranean world was a very different thing from the slavery of 16th-19th century America. The slaves of old were usually enslaved for a set period of time to pay off a debt, and were then freed. (In ancient Israel they could be held for a maximum of six years.) The children of slaves were not “born slaves” but free. And the Popes condemned racial slavery long before Columbus sailed.
(Dancus) Jewish historians, several of them Rabbis, put the figure at 2000. Which begs the question, are they only counting the Jews that suffered? I doubt that’s the case since the Inquisition was directed basicly at Jews, secondly at Moors. As far as as those naughty words Heresy and Heritic that surface regularly in most threads. When some writers can’t respond with reason they resort to those words. According to our Churchs defination at that time, anyone who did not believe in Jesus was a Heritic.(Surprise, surprise to some of you, I am a Roman Catholic) To continue, Jews were therefor Heritics. To it’s credit, the Church has modifed that strict definition and now go by degrees of Heresy.
By definition, a Jew CANNOT be a heretic, and this has never changed. A heretic is a baptised Christian who rejects part of the Christian faith. The Inquisition had no power or authority to try non-Christians. It did try some Catholics of Jewish descent who were accused of secretly practising Judaism and only making a show of their Catholicism.
 
I’m Spanish,and I learned a long time ago about the Spanish Inquisition,and never made any sense to me.What is the point to torture? If the imposing power was the Catholic church,they were supposed to teach tolerance and patience to everyone,not to hurt and kill people.:nope:
 
I doubt that’s the case since the Inquisition was directed basicly at Jews, secondly at Moors. As far as as those naughty words Heresy and Heritic that surface regularly in most threads. When some writers can’t respond with reason they resort to those words. According to our Churchs defination at that time, anyone who did not believe in Jesus was a Heritic.(Surprise, surprise to some of you, I am a Roman Catholic) To continue, Jews were therefor Heritics.
Wrong. The Inquistion specifically had no power over anyone that wasn’t Christian. The Inquisition (in Spain) DID NOT go after Jews or Moors, it went after the conversos who were “Judaizers”, people that externally converted to Catholicism but still practiced their old religion. Same deal with the Moors.

A heretic is someone who is a baptized Catholic who then forsakes the Church and joins or reverts to a different religion. That is, and has always been the definition of heresy.

People that aren’t Catholic or Christian are/were refered to as infidels, heathens, or more specifically as whatever they are/were-Buddists, Hindus, Muslims etc.
Since the catholic church claims that it is infallible and that the popes are infallible it is hard for those of us who aren’t catholic to see how something or someone infallible could allow those things to happen.
Infallibility isn’t the same as having super powers. Infallibility is a negative protection-it prevents the Pope and the Church from ever teaching heresy-it DOES NOT make them all-knowing, wise, or prudent. The Church can screw up in matters not pertaining to solemn dogma and doctrine that is essential for our salvation. If the Church (or more precisely, people within the Church) got too heavy handed in handling, say the Inquistion, that does absolutely nothing to prove that the Church isn’t infallible.

Also, while the Pope and the Church will never err in teaching doctrines on faith and morals, that also doesn’t mean that they will teach clearly or even necessarily teach at all. There have been instances where a Pope did not step up to the plate and decide matters when he should of, but again, he did not err in doctrine-he erred in not having the fortitude to get up there and teach.
 
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ComradeAndrei:
Wrong. The Inquistion specifically had no power over anyone that wasn’t Christian. The Inquisition (in Spain) DID NOT go after Jews or Moors, it went after the conversos who were “Judaizers”, people that externally converted to Catholicism but still practiced their old religion. Same deal with the Moors. .
Were the conversos pressured into converting from Judaism to Catholicism?
 
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Catilieth:
Confinement is physical persuasion. That is the whole point of encarceration.
Here’s the appositive quotation from the *Catechism – *emphasis added.

*#2298. *In recent times it has become evident that these cruel practices were neither necessary for public order, nor in conformity with the legitimate rights of the human person. On the contrary, these practices led to ones even more degrading. It is necessary to work for their abolition. We must pray for the victims and their tormentors.

Without whitewashing the Inquisition, any discussion of physical methods must, in honesty, acknowledge that until the middle of the 20th Century, the use of physical force was almost universally accepted.
 
So then, other than praying for them, what do we do with murderers and rapists? Society is allowed self defence, that is the reason behind capital punishment, which by the way, is now and has always been allowed by the Church. The only question up for grabs now is that given modern society’s affluence, is it necessary to use capital punishment or can society afford to keep these people separated from society indefinitely.

Personally, I think that thieves should be required to work at a job and repay every penny…and if they stole millions, well, it will just take them a long time. But then, there would be those that would call the cruel and unusual punishment.
 
mercygate said:
*#2298. *In recent times it has become evident that these cruel practices were neither necessary for public order, nor in conformity with the legitimate rights of the human person. On the contrary, these practices led to ones even more degrading. It is necessary to work for their abolition. We must pray for the victims and their tormentors.

Notice the words “become evident”. The CCC is not saying that torture used to be okay, but in recent times it is no longer okay. What the CCC is saying is that torture was never acceptable at any point in history, but it is only in recent times that the Church has clearly articulated the unacceptability of torture.

I think some people are wondering what could become evident in the future. For example, why isn’t it possible that the catechism in the year 3000 will say, “In recent times, it has become evident that discrimination against homosexuals is not in conformity with the legitimate rights of human persons.”
 
I wonder what the original latin says? The English translations of Church documents do not generally have the best reputation.
 
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Catholic2003:
Notice the words “become evident”. The CCC is not saying that torture used to be okay, but in recent times it is no longer okay. What the CCC is saying is that torture was never acceptable at any point in history, but it is only in recent times that the Church has clearly articulated the unacceptability of torture.

I think some people are wondering what could become evident in the future. For example, why isn’t it possible that the catechism in the year 3000 will say, “In recent times, it has become evident that discrimination against homosexuals is not in conformity with the legitimate rights of human persons.”
The Church already teaches that discrimination is unacceptable. From the Catechism:

**2358 **The number of men and women who have deep-seated homosexual tendencies is not negligible. This inclination, which is objectively disordered, constitutes for most of them a trial. They must be accepted with respect, compassion, and sensitivity. Every sign of unjust discrimination in their regard should be avoided. These persons are called to fulfill God’s will in their lives and, if they are Christians, to unite to the sacrifice of the Lord’s Cross the difficulties they may encounter from their condition.
 
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stanley123:
Were the conversos pressured into converting from Judaism to Catholicism?
They (or their ancestors) were given the choice of conversion or emigration, by the Spanish State. (The Inquisition had nothing to do with this.) An extremely unfair piece of discrimination against their rights, but they knew the choice was clear. Many chose to emigrate and continue openly practising Judaism. Some honestly chose to convert. But some chose to make a deliberate sham of conversion, and continued secretly practising Judaism. Yes, they should not have been put into this position, but what the Inquisition was concerned with was their dishonesty re their religious beliefs.

Yes, many wrong things happened in the years of the Inquisition. But the popular image of the Inquisition magnifies the wrongs by a thousandfold, as an argument that the Church must be evil. This is false. The inquisition was far from perfect, but it was far superior morally to other courts and authorities of the time.
 
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Catilieth:
I wonder what the original latin says? The English translations of Church documents do not generally have the best reputation.
The English version of the CCC is approved by the same Congregation and the same Pope who approved the Latin version. I’m sure they wouldn’t approve any English version which had a different meaning from the Latin one. The English version is not just a “translation” but an official document of the Holy See. And IIRC the “original” version of the CCC was actually in French.
 
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Petergee:
They (or their ancestors) were given the choice of conversion or emigration, by the Spanish State…
Wouldn’t this be classified as a form of forced conversion? If a person is forced to convert to Catholicism, would it be fair to torture that person if he reverts to his previous tradition?
 
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Catholic2003:
Good questions. As Catholics, we are obligated to follow the Magisterium, which is the living teaching authority of the Church. So that rules out believing that torture is acceptable.
Exactly my point. It was acceptable then at that moment. Let’s not judge a century according to our own.

:blessyou:
 
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Catholic2003:
Notice the words “become evident”. The CCC is not saying that torture used to be okay, but in recent times it is no longer okay. What the CCC is saying is that torture was never acceptable at any point in history, but it is only in recent times that the Church has clearly articulated the unacceptability of torture.
Now I am confused too. Does it mean that the Church failed in a moral teaching then? Does it mean that morals are changing conventions with, at best, just a kernel of truth?

TIA

:blessyou:
 
I’m currently embroiled in an argument with a bloke who thinks the Inquisitions were authorized to use rape to extract confessions.

I’m not even sure if I should be arguing with him, but he’s not a bad sort otherwise, so would anyone like to recommend the best way to refute a claim like this?
 
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Augustine:
One cannot judge the past according to the standards of the present.
But, can we judge the future according to the standards of the present?
 
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