T
timeandeternity
Guest
I was just reading Keating’s letter on the death penalty, and had some questions about the section with the same title as this post. (Here’s the letter for reference: catholic.com/newsletters/kke_040302.asp)
So, how in the world do we know when something in the Catechism is Catholic doctrine, and when something is a “prudential judgment?” If this is the only case where JPII inserted a prudential judgment, why here? Why not in other places where he had personal opinions? And if it’s in the Catechism, won’t most people just assume it’s doctrine? Why isn’t there a note saying, “This section is the prudential judgment of John Paul II, and should not be treated as Catholic doctrine”? And last but not least, why would a denial of retribution as a legitimate purpose of capital punishment be contrary to the traditional teaching of the Church?
Sorry about all the questions, but I’m totally confused about this.
So, how in the world do we know when something in the Catechism is Catholic doctrine, and when something is a “prudential judgment?” If this is the only case where JPII inserted a prudential judgment, why here? Why not in other places where he had personal opinions? And if it’s in the Catechism, won’t most people just assume it’s doctrine? Why isn’t there a note saying, “This section is the prudential judgment of John Paul II, and should not be treated as Catholic doctrine”? And last but not least, why would a denial of retribution as a legitimate purpose of capital punishment be contrary to the traditional teaching of the Church?
Sorry about all the questions, but I’m totally confused about this.