But you DID consent to commercials being broadcast to your television. That’s the point.
Once consent is established, now we can begin the discussion of the moral implication of termination. For the television, it’s no big deal to turn the channel.
Yes, you did consent to it, but changing the channel is still only wrong if it is intrinsically so. The consent is irrelevant.
Regardless of whether consent is established, we must proceed to the moral implication of termination, because the argument will not succeed unless termination is immoral. Now, one could say that we aren’t tackling the rape issue yet, if that’s necessary to make the case more palatable to secular audiences, but it is the moral status of the fetus that actually matters whether there was consent or not.
For a pregnancy, the life that the woman consented to gestate would be terminated, if she were to abort. Where the argument changes is that the pro-choice person CANNOT claim the right of the mother to do as she wishes with her body, the right of “privacy” to justify abortion, because she gave up that right when she allowed a man to release sperm into her reproductive system.
It disarms that argument.
She cannot claim that right only because the fetus has a more compelling right to life, which her right to bodily autonomy never trumps. The fact that she could have become pregnant from her actions does not inherently discredit her right to terminate a pregnancy; it is only discredited because there is never a right to terminate a pregnancy. If the fetus had no moral status, then she would be as justified in terminating the pregnancy as she is in changing the TV channel.
I think we are really arguing semantics. The use of the argument is as I have stated previously: if one knowingly undertakes a risk, immoral action may not be undertaken to correct for any potential consequences of the risk, even if those consequences are not intended. I think (correct me if this is wrong) that this is the point you ultimately intend to make. I am only saying that this whole argument must be presented at once, and it is not fruitful to begin with the issue of consent without the issue of the fetus’s moral status.
And, with your way, you yell “It’s a baby”, and the pro-choice person yells, “It’s my body”, and the two of you will never communicate.
All I’m doing is providing an answer to “It’s my body” to disarm that argument before continuing to the moral argument, which is now easier to make with consent on the table.
But, go ahead, continue yelling without communicating.
I’ve communicated with pro-choice individuals in this thread, pretty civilly. I don’t recall any shouting. Inevitably, the discussion turned to the moral status of the fetus, because simply saying that the woman knowingly undertook a risk (or, in your language, consented) is not enough.
I agree with the bolded statement, but I don’t think the point about consent stands on its own, and it need not be presented as an argument in itself because without consideration of the moral status of the infant, it goes nowhere.
The thing about the “it’s my body” objection is that it’s just propaganda. It also happens to be completely false; a fetus is not a woman’s body, it is not an organ, and it’s not a parasite. People use the phrase in public settings to convince others, by repetition and association, that there is not another party with competing rights claims involved. “It’s my body” is a visceral, dishonest, unphilosophical appeal to the “right” for abortion. It prefigures the right to bodily autonomy as an absolute right, which is a false assumption whether the issue of consent is being considered or not. “It’s my body” is what people write on posters and shout at pro-abortion rallies; it’s not an argument.