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LucyLight
Guest
LucyLight;8403817:
I don’t agree that what the OP is doing is morally correct because he says that the wife sometimes has an orgasm during their foreplay. Although, I completely understand his frustration. I’ve said that the foreplay shouldn’t go so far that there is a risk of orgasm.Says who? Where are you getting this information from? I’m not trying to be rude…I’d really like to know. The foreplay does not involve orgasm and the couple intends to have full intercourse at a later date that is open to life. So how is that masturbation? Are you saying that couples are not allowed to have any sexual contact with each other if it does not involve an immediate act of complete intercourse? I/
Come on this guy is talking about having intercourse, purely for pleasure, which he deliberately stops before orgasm (to reduce the chances of conception) as an act in itself. Surely to stimulate himself to an erection and his wife even to orgasm with the intent to do this is mutual masturbation or maybe (because penetration takes place) contraception even if he doesn’t actually go on to ejaculatie himself
Of course,a couple becoming aroused to a greater or lesser extent just through being affectionate etc isn’t a sin but surely to go bejond kissing & cuddling into deliberate sexual stimulation, genital contact (and for these guys - penitration) must be - unless as foreplay to intercourse. I think we all know where the line is between one and the other.