From this we can see that Muhammad certainly could have copied the Hebrew term “king” (“melek”) from the Bible and used it in the proper place in the Qur’an. He certainly had access to the Bible, both in written and oral form. There were Jews and Christians in Mecca and the rest of Arabia.Here’s an answer for you:
"These “facts” were known during the time of Muhammad. The Qur’an did not invent the title of Malik (King). In fact, the Bible uses both “Pharaoh” and “Melek” (the Hebrew term for King) in the story of Joseph (See Genesis 39:20 , 40:1, 40:5, 41:6)! It is also interesting to note that the Bible, unlike the Qur’an, uses both Pharaoh and Melek to refer to the King of Egypt in the account of Moses and the Exodus (see Exodus 6:11 and 13). "
Source: Response to Islamic Awareness: Qur’anic Accuracy vs. Biblical Error: The Kings & Pharaohs of Egypt
Most historians agree that Muhammad was an intelligent and well-travelled guy. He certainly had contact with people from other cultures, religions, and occupations. Indeed, almost every Muslim account of Muhammad’s early life mentions him travelling with his uncle, a merchant. The story of Bahira (the Christian monk of Busra), for instance, demonstrates that he traveled into the Byzantine Empire. This was during his childhood, well before he made the first revelation.An Arab from the desert of the Arabian peninsula knows a bit Egyptology…that’s very impressive of him
God’s chosen peopleGod’s chosen people
44:30 And, indeed, We delivered the children of Israel from the shameful suffering
44:31 [inflicted on them] by Pharaoh, seeing that he was truly outstand*ing among those who waste their own selves;
44:32 and indeed, We chose them knowingly above all other people
Code:2:122 O children of Israel ! Remember those blessings of Mine with which I graced you, ***and how I favored you above all other people***;
Christian Martyrs
Chapter 85 of the Quran mentions the Christian martyrs who were put to death in a burning fire in 523 AD.
Is it “King” or "Pharaoh"
- ** 4. ***Cursed were the people of the ditch (the story of the Boy and the King).
- ** 5. ***Fire supplied (abundantly) with fuel,
- ** 6. ***When they sat by it (fire),
- ** 7. ***And they witnessed what they were doing against the believers (i.e. burning them).
*** 8. They had nothing against them, except that they believed in Allâh, the All-Mighty, Worthy of all Praise! ***- ** 9. ***Who, to Whom belongs the dominion of the heavens and the earth! And Allâh is Witness over everything.
- ** 10. ***Verily, those who put into trial the believing men and believing women (by torturing them and burning them), and then do not turn in repentance, (to Allâh), will have the torment of Hell, and they will have the punishment of the burning Fire.
*** 11. Verily, those who believe and do righteous good deeds, for them will be Gardens under which rivers flow (Paradise). That is the great success. ***
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The kings of ancient Egypt during the time of Abraham, Joseph and Moses are constantly addressed with the title ‘Pharaoh’ in the Bible.
The Qur’an, however, differs from the Bible:
the sovereign of Egypt who was a contemporary of Joseph is named “King” (Arabic,Malik); whereas the Bible has named him “Pharaoh”. As for the king who ruled during the time of Moses the Qur’an repeatedly calls him “Pharaoh” (Arabic, Fir`awn).
in the time of Joesph
in the time of MosesCode:The ***king *** said: "I do see seven fat cows, whom seven lean ones devour, and seven green ears of corn, and seven (others) withered. O ye chiefs! expound to me my vision, if it be that ye can interpret visions." [Qur'an 12:43]
Then after them sent We Moses and Aaron to ***Pharaoh ***and his chiefs with Our Signs. But they were arrogant: they were a people in sin.[Qur’an 10:75]Pharaoh: Term used regularly by modern writers to refer to the Egyptian king. The word is the Greek form of the ancient Egyptian phrase per-aa (‘the great house’) which was originally used to refer to the royal palace rather than the king. The ‘great house’ was responsible for taxation of the lesser ‘houses’ (perw), such as the temple lands and private estates. From the New Kingdom (1550-1069 BC) onwards, the term was used to refer to the king himself.islamic-awareness.org/Quran/Contrad/External/josephdetail.html
SalomeBintullah, you had soem idea. But you did not connet it to any result. What did you mean by your new Idea?? What was the use of your idea to you???I just thought of something else. The ancient Egyptian language was still being spoken (and written) at that time in the form of Coptic. Muhammad had a Coptic concubine named Maria. It wasn’t until the Islamic invasion of Egypt less than a decade after Muhammad’s death that the Arabic language and Arab culture were imposed on the Egyptians. Coptic is mostly a liturgical language today, although you can find a small handful of people who still speak it as a regular language.
malek is an arabic wordFrom this we can see that Muhammad certainly could have copied the Hebrew term “king” (“melek”) from the Bible and used it in the proper place in the Qur’an. He certainly had access to the Bible, both in written and oral form. There were Jews and Christians in Mecca and the rest of Arabia.
Which means that Mohammed (May God have mercy on his soul) didn’t even need to copy it from the Hebrew Bible, he could have just guessed on his own. Either way, there is plenty of evidence here that there were other ways for him to have known to use “king”, and that he didn’t necessarily receive any kind of revelation from an angel.malek is an arabic word
That’s an extremely weak argument. Hebrew and Arabic are in the same language family, and “malek” and “melek” are cognates. They sound almost exactly the same. And it’s probable that the Arabian Jews told Biblical stories orally in Arabic to their children, whether or not the Tanakh had been translated into Arabic on paper at that time.malek is an arabic word
I was trying to point out that Muhammad did not have to be an Egyptologist in order to know this information, as the Egyptian culture and language was alive and well at that time.SalomeBintullah, you had soem idea. But you did not connet it to any result. What did you mean by your new Idea?? What was the use of your idea to you???
It’s not just probable, it’s factual. What’s more, the Jews who converted to Islam expanded upon midrashic literature (I believe these stories became known as the isra-iliat, or something along those lines), obviously in Arabic, as their fellow Muslims wouldn’t have understood Hebrew.And it’s probable that the Arabian Jews told Biblical stories orally in Arabic to their children