O
ophicleide
Guest
I can see this topic has been raised a few times but I can’t see a clear answer so I was wondering if anyone could help?
I am not Catholic (nor Christian); my partner is. When we were planning our marriage, my partner wished it to be in our local Catholic church. I had a look at the requirements for this to be valid. This took me to Can. 1125 which sets out the following:
When we visited our parish priest, he said that he regarded himself as having no jurisdiction over me and so he required an agreement from my partner to bring up any children as Catholics. Whilst I don’t think this exactly reflects the requirements of Can. 1125 it is reasonably close to me and I was happy about that.
The part that concerns me is this: at the marriage preparation course we have recently attended, it was set out that the following is part of the liturgy as a “question before consent”:
It also seems hard to reconcile the obligations of Can. 1125 with the question asked in the liturgy: the liturgy seems much stricter than the requirement of Can. 1125.
Might I therefore ask some questions:
I am not Catholic (nor Christian); my partner is. When we were planning our marriage, my partner wished it to be in our local Catholic church. I had a look at the requirements for this to be valid. This took me to Can. 1125 which sets out the following:
I was happy with this.1/ the Catholic party is to declare that he or she is prepared to remove dangers of defecting from the faith and is to make a sincere promise to do all in his or her power so that all offspring are baptized and brought up in the Catholic Church;
2/ the other party is to be informed at an appropriate time about the promises which the Catholic party is to make, in such a way that it is certain that he or she is truly aware of the promise and obligation of the Catholic party;
3/ both parties are to be instructed about the purposes and essential properties of marriage which neither of the contracting parties is to exclude.
When we visited our parish priest, he said that he regarded himself as having no jurisdiction over me and so he required an agreement from my partner to bring up any children as Catholics. Whilst I don’t think this exactly reflects the requirements of Can. 1125 it is reasonably close to me and I was happy about that.
The part that concerns me is this: at the marriage preparation course we have recently attended, it was set out that the following is part of the liturgy as a “question before consent”:
Whilst I do not have a problem with:Are you prepared to accept children lovingly from God and to bring them up according to the law of Christ and his Church?
- Accepting children lovingly from God; and
- Agreeing that any children can be brought up according to the laws of the Catholic church,
It also seems hard to reconcile the obligations of Can. 1125 with the question asked in the liturgy: the liturgy seems much stricter than the requirement of Can. 1125.
Might I therefore ask some questions:
- If the question before consent reflects the true position; why does Can. 1125 not simply say that the requirement is that both parents agree to bring up any children according to the laws of the Catholic church?
- From looking on this forum, it seems to me that before 1983 the position was as in the liturgy and the requirement was for both parties to promise to bring up the children as Catholic; why was the Canon Law changed by not the liturgy?
- I note that the question is prefixed with: “the following question may be omitted, if circumstances suggest this, for example, if the couple are advanced in years”: is this another circumstance when it can be omitted?
- Is, in reality, that question only asked of the Catholic party?