Interpreting Luke 22:36-38

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ddarko

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Hi all,

Sorry for opening so many threads but here is another burning interpretation that I’ve been presented multiple times with of Luke 22:36-38.
I refer you to Luke 22:36-38 where Our Lord commanded His followers to purchase a sword even if they had to sell their cloak to do it. The “sword” (Greek: maxairan) is a dagger or short sword that belonged to the Jewish traveler’s equipment as protection against robbers and wild animals. Pretty much the equivalent of what a gun is today. A plain reading of the passage indicates that Jesus approved of self-defense.
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Let us also not forget that God rejected Saul as King of the Jews for FAILING to use the sword in executing the King of Amalek in 1 Sam 15:10-23 … clearly showing that being a pacifist was NOT pleasing to God and sometimes a sword or a gun is the correct response.
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So in the 21st Century that means you need to own firearms for self-defense.
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I was always under the impression that Jesus was speaking to fulfill prophecy and in the other instance to arm one self Spiritually.

Is there any merit to the above persons interpretation? Is this an accepted interpretation in Theological circles.

God Bless 🙂
 
If Jesus was not referring to physical swords, I have the following questions:


  1. *]What is the reference to swords is suppose to mean if it doesn’t mean physical swords. If we don’t have “it”, we are suppose to sell our cloak and buy what?

    *]Scripture tells us that Jesus ALWAYS explained things to His Apostles when they misunderstood his figurative language. He didn’t do so here. Either he didn’t need to explain it because they understood correctly and Jesus was referring to actual swords or the INFALLIBLE Word of God is WRONG and Jesus did not explain everything to them when they misunderstood. Which is it?

    *]Jesus was giving His message to the Apostles to carry to the four corners of the world. Seeing that they misunderstood, why would He not clarify what He meant? Wouldn’t that ensure that they would spread the message incorrectly to others? Is that something that you would expect from the Great Teacher?

    *]This Gospel account was written after the minds of the Apostles were opened by the Holy Spirit. Seeing that they misunderstood Christ’s meaning, why wouldn’t they clarify it when writing the Gospel as they did in other places where they misunderstood something?
 
Sir_Knight said:
If Jesus was not referring to physical swords, I have the following questions:


  1. *]What is the reference to swords is suppose to mean if it doesn’t mean physical swords. If we don’t have “it”, we are suppose to sell our cloak and buy what?

    *]Scripture tells us that Jesus ALWAYS explained things to His Apostles when they misunderstood his figurative language. He didn’t do so here. Either he didn’t need to explain it because they understood correctly and Jesus was referring to actual swords or the INFALLIBLE Word of God is WRONG and Jesus did not explain everything to them when they misunderstood. Which is it?

    *]Jesus was giving His message to the Apostles to carry to the four corners of the world. Seeing that they misunderstood, why would He not clarify what He meant? Wouldn’t that ensure that they would spread the message incorrectly to others? Is that something that you would expect from the Great Teacher?

    *]This Gospel account was written after the minds of the Apostles were opened by the Holy Spirit. Seeing that they misunderstood Christ’s meaning, why wouldn’t they clarify it when writing the Gospel as they did in other places where they misunderstood something?
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  1. Thanks for posting that. I am sure it will help those who answer.

    God Bless 🙂
 
perhaps this thread can be moved to the “Sacred Scripture” section of CAF
 
That link does not address any of the four major contradictions. None of those contradictions exist if Jesus referred to real swords.
 
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