E
eendres
Guest
I was hoping for a follow up on the Q&A article by Jim Blackburn on 8/4/11.
I’ve been trying to research this question, but most articles I’ve found are dated nearly a decade out, and recent articles that make a passing reference only mention that Intrauterine Insemination (IUI) is still being debated.
Donum Vitae mentions a moral exception “for those cases in which the technical means is not a substitute for the conjugal act but serves to facilitate and to help so that the act attains its natural purpose” (DV 6), but how is this exception applied?
I know this is an open forum, but I’m hoping to hear from someone who knows an answer or at least where to get a firm answer.
I’ve been trying to research this question, but most articles I’ve found are dated nearly a decade out, and recent articles that make a passing reference only mention that Intrauterine Insemination (IUI) is still being debated.
Donum Vitae mentions a moral exception “for those cases in which the technical means is not a substitute for the conjugal act but serves to facilitate and to help so that the act attains its natural purpose” (DV 6), but how is this exception applied?
I know this is an open forum, but I’m hoping to hear from someone who knows an answer or at least where to get a firm answer.