Invalid Baptism?

[smad0142]

I was at an Easter Vigil and the Priest said for one of the candidates “Be baptized in the…”. For the rest of the candidates he said, “I baptize you in…”. And for one of the cadidates he started saying “Be…” and then corrected himself and said “I…”. Are both forms valid? And if so why the different usages? Thanks!!

 

[markomalley]

I was at an Easter Vigil and the Priest said for one of the candidates “Be baptized in the…”. For the rest of the candidates he said, “I baptize you in…”. And for one of the cadidates he started saying “Be…” and then corrected himself and said “I…”. Are both forms valid? And if so why the different usages? Thanks!!

The proper form is “I baptize you in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit.”

The two key things are:

1. Was water poured over the recipient?
2. Were the words “the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit” used (not “creator, redeemer, sanctifier” or some other variant)?

From my understanding, the Church is pretty tolerant of variation there…so far as validity is concerned (liceity is another issue altogether)

If both the above are true, the baptisms were valid.

 

[Corki]

The proper form is “I baptize you in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit.”

The two key things are:

1. Was water poured over the recipient?
2. Were the words “the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit” used (not “creator, redeemer, sanctifier” or some other variant)?

From my understanding, the Church is pretty tolerant of variation there…so far as validity is concerned (liceity is another issue altogether)

If both the above are true, the baptisms were valid.

And along the lines of leniency, **pouring **of water isn’t even required for validity. Sprinkling and dunking are valid as well.

 

[smad0142]

Water was poured so yes it appears to be valid even if illicit. Thanks!! One other question though:

Validity requires the water to be flowing correct? Well if somebody makes a sign of the cross on a person’s forehead is that also valid since the water is still flowing, just not naturally? Thanks!!

 

[Evan]

I don’t think that in sprinkling water, there would be any flowing. And that is a valid form (though not used much)

 

[Spirithound]

I was at an Easter Vigil and the Priest said for one of the candidates “Be baptized in the…”. For the rest of the candidates he said, “I baptize you in…”. And for one of the cadidates he started saying “Be…” and then corrected himself and said “I…”. Are both forms valid? And if so why the different usages? Thanks!!

The ancient Church used a declarative formula, but I think that was more “The Servant of God, N. is baptized in the Name of…”

The subjunctive voice that you’ve given combines the expressed will of the priest in the modern formula, with the element of God’s agency that was more explicit in the ancient formula.

I would think that it is valid.