To suggest a sacrament objectively makes such a non-difference to the human soul, that it’s equally reasonable to just ‘presume’ the sacraments are validly received as to ensure the sacraments are validly received, is such an insane concept to me.
That is not how I have learned issues of sacramental theology. What I have been taught is that man is bound by God’s law, but God is not bound by man’s law.
I don’t quetion the right of the Church to establish the formula for baptism; nor do I make light of any sacrament - including baptism and marriage.
If someone was baptized by a Protestant minister or a Protestant deacon or other individual and they used the wrong formula, it may well be that no one is ever going to know that. Does that mean they cannot get to heaven? I don’t think that is what the Church teaches.
The Church teaches that a priest must use the formula “I baptize…” The Church also says that if one party is a Catholic, they must have a priest witness their marriage; but the Church recognizes marriages between Protestants who may have the marriage witnessed by a non-ministerial individual (e.g., a judge, a Justice of the Peace, or at the Las Vegas Chapel of Chimes).
It is up to the CDF to sort through what the Church will recognize as a valid baptism; so far it appears their ruling only applies to priests; and whether or not the CDF would say that “We baptize…” in a Protestant baptism has yet to be answered, if the quoted passage is the substance of the ruling…
It is my understanding that “Creator, Redeemer and Sanctifier” do not cut it for any baptism, Catholic or Protestant. The same may, or may not be said for “We (and etc.)”. that is up to the CDF, and barring them stepping into the breach, the local bishop.
This may be a bit too fine a distinction, and I can understand that. But let me ask it another way: if you went to Mass and realized the priest was using leavened bread, would you receive Communion?
I have; and the circumstances were at an Eastern Rite Mass at a Ruthenian Greek Catholic Church - which is in union with Rome. While a Roman rite may not use leavened bread, that is the normal bread used for Consecration; and in fact, while in the Roman rite leavened bread is invalid matter, it appears that in the history of the Roman rite, there were times it was valid.
As I noted, I do not have the document from the CDF. What little has been quoted appears to be directed to Catholic priests, not necessarily Protestant baptisms. The document may or may not address that matter.
If it does, then I consider it ruling, and would operate under the guidance of the bishop.
If it does not, then it seems to me that the CDF has to answer the issue.
And God is still in charge, and part of the question.