Invalid or valid mass

[Coachrod38]

In our Sunday mass we do not recite any of the penitential acts. We have the opening greeting(only the first one…our priest does not say may the grace…) where the priest says “The Lord be with you.” Then the opening prayer and then we sing the Gloria. The only time we recite the penitential act is during lent when we do not song the Gloria. Is our mass valid?

 

[bilop]

In our Sunday mass we do not recite any of the penitential acts. We have the opening greeting(only the first one…our priest does not say may the grace…) where the priest says “The Lord be with you.” Then the opening prayer and then we sing the Gloria. The only time we recite the penitential act is during lent when we do not song the Gloria. Is our mass valid?

As long as the priest doesn’t alter the words of consecration, the Mass is valid, in that the Body and Blood of Jesus Christ become present in the Eucharist.

It is however illicit, and sinful on the part of the priest to knowingly alter the Rite in such a way.

You should raise the issue with your priest, and if you get no satisfaction, complain to your bishop. The laity have the right to have Mass done “by the book”.

God Bless

 

[Coachrod38]

I have heard of parishioners asking him about this and his response was that liturgically it is allowed. I had learned that we needed do it to be absolved of venial sins before receiving the Eucharist.

 

[bilop]

I have heard of parishioners asking him about this and his response was that liturgically it is allowed. I had learned that we needed do it to be absolved of venial sins before receiving the Eucharist.

You can find the Roman Missal and the GIRM on line quite easily. All the permissible options will be listed.

If he does anything that is not listed in those books, or omits anything that is not listed as optional, it is not permitted. There is wide latitude in some parts of the Novus Ordo, but not complete latitude. e.g. there is a choice of penitential rites, but omitting it isn’t an option.

It’s hard to certain without being there, so I’d encourage you to read up yourself.

God Bless

 

[Coachrod38]

Thank you so much for your help and advice!
May God bless you as well.

 

[Joe_5859]

I have heard of parishioners asking him about this and his response was that liturgically it is allowed. I had learned that we needed do it to be absolved of venial sins before receiving the Eucharist.

Reception of the Eucharist itself forgives venial sins (see CCC 1394). The penitential rite is not strictly necessary for that purpose.

 

[bilop]

Reception of the Eucharist itself forgives venial sins (see CCC 1394). The penitential rite is not strictly necessary for that purpose.

Correct. In the TLM the people don’t say the penitential rite (Confiteor), just the priest and server.

In any case, no sin for anything the priest does illicitly would attach to the congregation.

God Bless

 

[pnewton]

It is totally valid. Few things can nullify the validiy of the Holy Sacrament. If one has the proper matter (bread and wine), valid holy orders and says the core of the words of consecration, then the consecration is valid.

 

[edward_george]

Correct. In the TLM the people don’t say the penitential rite (Confiteor), just the priest and server.

In any case, no sin for anything the priest does illicitly would attach to the congregation.

God Bless

I ought to point out that in the Extraordinary Form of the Mass, what is going on there is that the server is saying the Confiteor on behalf of the people, and then the priest is absolving everyone. This is evidenced by the use of the plural form in the priest’s prayers of absolution; in the first, he says miseratur vestri, i.e. “y’all,” as my college Latin professor would tell us to differentiate between it and “tu.” Then, the priest goes on and says “Indulgentiam, absolutionem, et remissionem peccatorum nostrorum…”, i.e. “our.”

#liturgynerdmoment

-ACEGC