C
Contarini
Guest
In a thread on the Motu Proprio on the Traditional Catholicism board, a Catholic poster wrote:
How can Catholics appeal to the early Church to convince Protestants to accept Catholicism, and then make a claim like this, which utterly contradicts everything the Fathers had to say about ecclesiology?
I am not talking about the internal coherence of the Catholic view. I am talking about the apologetic aspect–why should a Protestant take Catholic appeals to the Fathers seriously for a minute, if you can write off the episcopacy as irrelevant because of a decree from Rome?
Note that I am not talking about the authority of the papacy to defend the Faith (though even there the bishop’s opinion would never be “irrelevant”–it might result in the bishop being declared outside the Faith). I am assuming (pace the staunch traditionalists) that offering only the Novus Ordo is compatible with orthodox Christianity. If that is the case, then how can the bishop’s stance be irrelevant without violating everything the Fathers from St. Ignatius (if not St. Paul) on have to say about episcopal authority?
Edwin
Could Scotty or any other Catholic defend this statement in the light of the Fathers? I.e., can you support the idea that any Christian in the first 500 years (or for that matter the first 1000 years) of Christian history would think that the bishop’s stand on any matter relating to the Christian Faith was irrelevant?The bishop’s stand on the matter is largely irrelevant.
How can Catholics appeal to the early Church to convince Protestants to accept Catholicism, and then make a claim like this, which utterly contradicts everything the Fathers had to say about ecclesiology?
I am not talking about the internal coherence of the Catholic view. I am talking about the apologetic aspect–why should a Protestant take Catholic appeals to the Fathers seriously for a minute, if you can write off the episcopacy as irrelevant because of a decree from Rome?
Note that I am not talking about the authority of the papacy to defend the Faith (though even there the bishop’s opinion would never be “irrelevant”–it might result in the bishop being declared outside the Faith). I am assuming (pace the staunch traditionalists) that offering only the Novus Ordo is compatible with orthodox Christianity. If that is the case, then how can the bishop’s stance be irrelevant without violating everything the Fathers from St. Ignatius (if not St. Paul) on have to say about episcopal authority?
Edwin