The examples you gave were, for the most part, not on the subject of Patriarchy. Education of women is not inconsistent with Patriarchy, for example.
I linked to that post because it contains examples that I think are contrary to patriarchy. As examples of that, I would include instances of women holding political authority over men, positions in education over men, statements in favor of the equality of men with women, and statements that tell men not to dominate women, where “dominate” is the opposite of “serve.” I hope that helps explain why I linked to that page.
Is this the part you’re referring to? (I can’t quote the whole thing because of length)
Yes, that is the beginning of the passage I was referring to.
He is certainly in favor of everybody serving everyone, voluntarily. But the idea of obedience to everyone, because everyone is an authority?
Perhaps this is evidence that we do not disagree as much over substance as over words and their definitions. I do not think that it is patriarchal for wives to obey their husbands, if the husbands are forbidden from abusing that power. It is an instance of men holding authority over women, but if women also hold authority over men in other circumstances, then I would call such a society neither patriarchal nor matriarchal, but mixed.
he isn’t telling masters to free their slaves, but to “serve” them. If slaves were an authority over masters, then slavery doesn’t really exist. But when he talks about wives and husbands, he explicitly talks about obedience and authority.
I think that the second sentence you cited forbids husbands to dominate their wives, and exempts wives from obedience to husbands who neglect to serve them: “Would you have your wife obedient unto you, as the Church is to Christ? Take then yourself the same provident care for her, as Christ takes for the Church.” That is also a reason why I cited that document as an attitude contrary to patriarchy, at least as Wikipedia defines it.
In my Greek New Testament, it’s included in verse 22. When you say “the verb”, you mean “hupotassō”, correct?
Yes. According to this analysis:
biblehub.com/text/ephesians/5-22.htm the verb does not appear in the Nestle Greek New Testament or the Westcott & Hort Greek New Testament. It does appear in the Textus Receptus and two Byzantine manuscripts. I was not aware of this manuscript discrepancy, but I do think we should assume the correctness of Nestle, Westcott, and Hort, because it is my understanding that those are the editions most appreciated by scholars in the field of textual criticism.
Husbands would be included in the phrase “be subject to one another”. So would parents.
Agreed. I also think the New Testament teaches against parents dominating their children, again where “dominating” is the opposite of “serving.”
If we compare the social position of children to the social position of women in Church History, I would say that Catholic social teaching, beginning with the New Testament and going forward through the next 2000 years, contains many examples of women, but not children, holding political authority over men, and many examples of women, but not children, holding positions in education over men. Both women and children, on the other hand, have statements in favor of their equal dignity with men/elders, and statements that tell men/parents not to dominate women/children.
Thus, I think you could say that Catholic social teaching did not support patriarchy, in the sense given by wikipedia, but did support whatever the equivalent term would be for parents holding positions of authority over children.
Not “equality” in the sense the term is typically used, certainly. Does a parent love his children as himself? Does he value their time equally to his?
I think he should, if I understand you correctly.
Does he give them equal power in the relationship?
I think you can deny children equal power in a relationship without dominating them, where “dominating” means the opposite of “serving.” To apply this to patriarchy: if husbands have authority in the relationship that women do not have, I do not think that is automatically patriarchal, because it does not automatically entail domination, nor does it deny that women have authority that men do not have. Perhaps instances of unique female authority in marital relationships can be thought of, though I am primarily speaking about other areas where Catholic social teaching, starting with the New Testament, permits women to have other positions of authority over men, such as in education, spiritual direction, and politics.
Does he give them equal control over property?
I cited several examples in the link earlier where women apparently had equal control over property. I don’t think children should, and I don’t think it is inherently patriarchal to have the husband control the property, provided he uses that responsibility to serve (as in, opposite of dominate) his family, including his wife. And I don’t think he could do that without their (name removed by moderator)ut.
Cont’d next post.