First there was the unilateral addition of the Filioque in the Nicene Creed by Germanic Popes.
You present the impression that a certain Pope who was a man of Germanic origin woke up one day and inserted something he, the night before, invented into the Nicene Creed and then commanded all to say it. Later, you make this claim appear even more absurd by insisting that the Popes were little less than mere vassals appointed by either the Gothic or Frankish kings who rose to predominance in the West after the sack of Rome, but nonetheless we are to believe that, in spite of all the different kingdoms and ethnic groups that existed in the West, someone perceieved to be a mere vassal of but one of all those kings, yet had the power to command them all and their diverse subjects without difficulty.
Regardless, the Holy See has perogatives granted to it and it alone by God with the Promise of His help in all matters of Faith, morals and discipline. The Nicene Creed itself would be null and worthless if it were not for Rome’s approbation of it.
Secondly, there was the denial that the Roman Emperor of the East was even Roman, a true diplomatic slight coming from the new Germanic masters of Rome, who installed their own in the papacy.
The contradiction contained in this statement is overwhelming.
You insist on calling Popes “Germanic Popes” - a term I have never even heard of, mind you - and then proceed to complain of the Roman Pontiff’s supposed insistence that the Eastern Roman Emperors were not Romans? Seeing as Rome was not part of the Eastern Roman Empire and that the Popes were actually in the City of Rome, I think I could appreciate their supposed objection to the idea that an Empire that did not and could not even control the namesake of its Empire (the City of Rome) would consider itself Roman. By the time of the fall of the Western Roman Empire the East was not in any position to do anything about it.
You can quote a source if you like on this issue, but I can recall another source from memory, Edward Gibbon’s famous historical classic,
The Decline and Fall of the Roman Empire, which was written by a man who had no affinity whatsoever, whether natural or spiritual, for either West or East: Roman or Greek, as he was an Englishman and an Anglican. His work makes plain that the Eastern Roman Empire was, for all intents and purposes, wholly Greek even by the time of Justinian’s conquests, which was about the 6th or 7th century A.D (if I recall correctly), and was - if I recall correctly - the last time the Eastern Empire ever tried to make good on its claims to the West or, in particular, Rome or Italy. From that point on Romans truly were a people who lived in an Italian city, which had nothing to do with the Eastern Roman Empire. Hence why most people begin to refer to it as the Byzantine Empire starting around this period, but certainly at least by the time of the Great Schism.
Lastly, you know full-well that as Patriarch of the West the Roman Pontiff had every right to ensure the Church there remained free from any inappropriate control or interference. Caesaro-Papism, might I well remind you, and very much contrary to your depiction of history, was a problem long before the Great Schism, as we see even in Constantine’s time and with his descendants, and a more serious problem after that in the East than in the West, owing to the collapse of the Western Roman Empire. It was a problem in both East and West and so I fail to see how it could possibly ever be brought-up as if it were a “change” from things in the past, when it truth it was par for the course.
Furthermore, if the aims of the Roman Pontiffs in their reforms were to ensure the liberty of the Church from lay or political control, then what could possibly be the problem with that? At the very least the Pope was stressing the doctrine of the proper division between temporal and spiritual powers, with the latter taking precedence especially over ecclesiastical affairs and interests, e.g. Church property.
Your challenge then appears to be based only on the existence of the Flioque clause’s existence in the West, which existed for a long time before the Great Schism. It hardly compares to a complete break with ancient tradition of Apostolic origin that the Petrine See held both a primacy and a preeminence, and all other Sees drew their authority from that See as a stream from its font.