Is Catholicism the Oldest Christian Religion?

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The Church was entrusted to all the Apostles. The Church even refers to certain saints who lived hundreds of years later (e.g. Sts. Cyril and Methodius) as “equals to the Apostles”. In so doing, the Church emphasizes that it was entrusted to the care of all the Apostles, even those saints who were equally graced in accomplishing great things in spreading the Gospel.

That said, as a fellow Catholic, I am not disputing that St. Peter was especially entrusted by Christ - this is clear. However, we do not serve the will of the Lord well when we suggest that our Orthodox brothers and sisters do not also share in the True Faith. The Catholic Church most definitely does not teach that, and steadily and faithfully continues to work toward the reunion of all the Apostolic Churches.
When did I ever say that?

I’m firmly believe that those who profess to be Orthodox to be Chirstians and my brothers and sisters in Chirst.

I was only saying that all of those communities do not make the Catholic Church as we see it. Maybe I’m wrong here. If I am, then I apologize.
 
When did I ever say that?

I’m firmly believe that those who profess to be Orthodox to be Chirstians and my brothers and sisters in Chirst.

I was only saying that all of those communities do not make the Catholic Church as we see it. Maybe I’m wrong here. If I am, then I apologize.
Understood - the context of your earlier post strongly suggested that it is only the Catholic Church that represents the true Church of Christ. If I misread, I also apologize.

Peace be with you!
 
I believe the first persons whom Our Lord Jesus Christ preached and taught through were the Brahman Buddhists, during His Lost years, before His return to Israel…from the age of 13 to approx. 26, Jesus Christ (Christos) was in India and in the Monastaries of Brahman Buddhist Lama Monks, in the Himilayas…there are written ancient manuscripts describing His life while among them, learning, teaching, preaching, practice of guru (Teacher status) including levitation, healing, and all the Mysteries of the Wise Religion and the Science of GOD…far, far older…
This is better known as doctrine of demons.

Under the doctrine of demons, any physical manifestation of so called ascended masters becomes reality in the minds of those who abscribe to it.

Lucis Trust; Share International and other Blavatskian entities echo the same occult, elite mumbo jumbo which turns out to be just doctrine of demons.

You’d be better off reverting to Cathlicism before your mind turns to mush in one of those TM rehearsals for the “great day of his appearing into our world stage”.

Maitreya will betraya.
 
I believe the first persons whom Our Lord Jesus Christ preached and taught through were the Brahman Buddhists, during His Lost years, before His return to Israel…from the age of 13 to approx. 26, Jesus Christ (Christos) was in India and in the Monastaries of Brahman Buddhist Lama Monks, in the Himilayas…there are written ancient manuscripts describing His life while among them, learning, teaching, preaching, practice of guru (Teacher status) including levitation, healing, and all the Mysteries of the Wise Religion and the Science of GOD…far, far older…
Southern California…

Divine Science…

of course it’s all coming into view now. [If you’re going to S.F. make sure you wear flowers in your hair].
 
Just pointing out that this is not a teaching of the Catholic Church.
You are correct, and I never stated otherwise. I never intentionally misrepresent the teaching of any of the Churches.

The teaching of the Catholic Church is that the fullness of the Church subsists in the communion of Churches whose heads are the Bishop of Rome and those bishops in communion with him. Furthermore, the Catholic Church teaches that there are other true Churches, including the Assyrian Church of the East, the Oriental Orthodox Churches, and the Eastern Orthodox Churches, that possess apostolicity, and therefore, have valid orders and valid sacraments. Nevertheless, they suffer from a defect by virtue of the fact that they are not in communion with the Bishop of Rome, so the fullness of the Church does not subsist within these communities.

I’m personally not persuaded on this. I agree that these Churches suffer a defect in that they are not in communion with the Bishop of Rome (as the successor of St. Peter), but I think that the Catholic Church, and those Churches in communion with her, also suffer a defect by virtue of not being in communion with the other apostolic Churches. I believe that the state of schism wounds the entire Church, not just those particular Churches that lack communion with Rome. We are all responsible for the schism, and we are all wounded by it.
 
You are correct about the Church’s teaching up to this part:
Nevertheless, they suffer from a defect by virtue of the fact that they are not in communion with the Bishop of Rome, so the fullness of the Church does not subsist within these communities.
Fear not, for you do not need to be persuaded by this. 😉

The Church does not teach that the fullness of the Church does not reside in the Eastern Orthodox, Oriental Orthodox, or Assyrian Churches. We simply do not know, and we do not pass judgement upon it. Simply put: We know where the Church is, we do not know where it is not.

What we believe is that we have an imperfect communion between the Churches. If I may say so myself, I am in hearty agreement that our universal church suffers a defect because despite our shared patrimony, tradition and teachings, we are not in communion. 🙂
 
You are correct about the Church’s teaching up to this part:

Fear not, for you do not need to be persuaded by this. 😉

The Church does not teach that the fullness of the Church does not reside in the Eastern Orthodox, Oriental Orthodox, or Assyrian Churches. We simply do not know, and we do not pass judgement upon it. Simply put: We know where the Church is, we do not know where it is not.

What we believe is that we have an imperfect communion between the Churches. If I may say so myself, I am in hearty agreement that our universal church suffers a defect because despite our shared patrimony, tradition and teachings, we are not in communion. 🙂
Pope Benedict XVI himself stated, I believe in 2007, that the Orthodox suffer a defect by virtue of not being communion with Rome.
 
You are correct, and I never stated otherwise. I never intentionally misrepresent the teaching of any of the Churches.

The teaching of the Catholic Church is that the fullness of the Church subsists in the communion of Churches whose heads are the Bishop of Rome and those bishops in communion with him. Furthermore, the Catholic Church teaches that there are other true Churches, including the Assyrian Church of the East, the Oriental Orthodox Churches, and the Eastern Orthodox Churches, that possess apostolicity, and therefore, have valid orders and valid sacraments. Nevertheless, they suffer from a defect by virtue of the fact that they are not in communion with the Bishop of Rome, so the fullness of the Church does not subsist within these communities.

I’m personally not persuaded on this. I agree that these Churches suffer a defect in that they are not in communion with the Bishop of Rome (as the successor of St. Peter), but I think that the Catholic Church, and those Churches in communion with her, also suffer a defect by virtue of not being in communion with the other apostolic Churches. I believe that the state of schism wounds the entire Church, not just those particular Churches that lack communion with Rome. We are all responsible for the schism, and we are all wounded by it.
It’s probably best to continue this conversation at another time. I thank you for the wonderful discussion and all the other posters I responded to.

Just want to say that I hope you and the others continue to grow in faith to our Lord Jesus Chirst. God bless.
 
Pope Benedict XVI himself stated, I believe in 2007, that the Orthodox suffer a defect by virtue of not being communion with Rome.
I believe you are referring to this? It was issued by Cardinal Levada, not the Pope, but that’s besides the point. 🙂

vatican.va/roman_curia/congregations/cfaith/documents/rc_con_cfaith_doc_20070629_responsa-quaestiones_en.html
THIRD QUESTION
Why was the expression “subsists in” adopted instead of the simple word “is”?
The use of this expression, which indicates the full identity of the Church of Christ with the Catholic Church, does not change the doctrine on the Church. Rather, it comes from and brings out more clearly the fact that there are “numerous elements of sanctification and of truth” which are found outside her structure, but which “as gifts properly belonging to the Church of Christ, impel towards Catholic Unity”.
“It follows that these separated churches and Communities, though we believe they suffer from defects, are deprived neither of significance nor importance in the mystery of salvation. In fact the Spirit of Christ has not refrained from using them as instruments of salvation, whose value derives from that fullness of grace and of truth which has been entrusted to the Catholic Church”.
It does not claim that the Orthodox Chuches are themselves defective, let alone because they are not in communion with Rome. Rather, it admits that there may be groups that may be true to the faith in Christ, even though some of them may not possess all of His gifts. This may not be referring to the Orthodox Church at all. In fact, I believe he is referring to some Protestant groups who suffer from a lack of sacraments and theological insufficiency despite their fervour for holiness. 😉

In any case, his answer is about affirming the fullness of faith that the Catholic Church holds, rather than saying that all other groups do not. Let us not fret about them. We all have our faults to bear, and a responsibility to realise a future reunion. 😃
 
Pope Benedict XVI himself stated, I believe in 2007, that the Orthodox suffer a defect by virtue of not being communion with Rome.
I believe you are referring to this? It was issued by Cardinal Levada, not the Pope, but that’s besides the point. 🙂

vatican.va/roman_curia/congregations/cfaith/documents/rc_con_cfaith_doc_20070629_responsa-quaestiones_en.html
THIRD QUESTION
Why was the expression “subsists in” adopted instead of the simple word “is”?
The use of this expression, which indicates the full identity of the Church of Christ with the Catholic Church, does not change the doctrine on the Church. Rather, it comes from and brings out more clearly the fact that there are “numerous elements of sanctification and of truth” which are found outside her structure, but which “as gifts properly belonging to the Church of Christ, impel towards Catholic Unity”.
“It follows that these separated churches and Communities, though we believe they suffer from defects, are deprived neither of significance nor importance in the mystery of salvation. In fact the Spirit of Christ has not refrained from using them as instruments of salvation, whose value derives from that fullness of grace and of truth which has been entrusted to the Catholic Church”.
It does not claim that the Orthodox Chuches are themselves defective, let alone because they are not in communion with Rome. Rather, it admits that there may be groups that may be true to the faith in Christ, even though some of them may not possess all of His gifts. This may not be referring to the Orthodox Church at all. In fact, I believe he is referring to some Protestant groups who suffer from a lack of sacraments and theological insufficiency despite their fervour for holiness. 😉

In any case, his answer is about affirming the fullness of faith that the Catholic Church holds, rather than saying that all other groups do not. Let us not fret about attributing defects. We all have our faults to bear, and a responsibility to realise a future reunion. 😃
 
Both Catholicism and Orthodoxy are the oldest, since both were part of the original One, Holy, Catholic, Apostolic Church which Christ founded, and both continue to nurture the traditions that were given to them by the Apostolic Fathers.

Of course, this presumes that both are the Church of Christ, and I’m sure some people in both camps might disagree with that, but that argument is for another day, another thread. 🙂

Protestantism, however, began only five hundred years ago. As much as they may claim to be the true Christian Church, they are a relatively new movement.
So when the Latin and Orthodox reunit, which is happening, it will be the oldest, we can only trust in the Holy Spirit that the others whill also be lead back.
 
I believe you are referring to this? It was issued by Cardinal Levada, not the Pope, but that’s besides the point. 🙂

vatican.va/roman_curia/congregations/cfaith/documents/rc_con_cfaith_doc_20070629_responsa-quaestiones_en.html

It does not claim that the Orthodox Chuches are themselves defective, let alone because they are not in communion with Rome. Rather, it admits that there may be groups that may be true to the faith in Christ, even though some of them may not possess all of His gifts. This may not be referring to the Orthodox Church at all. In fact, I believe he is referring to some Protestant groups who suffer from a lack of sacraments and theological insufficiency despite their fervour for holiness. 😉

In any case, his answer is about affirming the fullness of faith that the Catholic Church holds, rather than saying that all other groups do not. Let us not fret about attributing defects. We all have our faults to bear, and a responsibility to realise a future reunion. 😃
In stating, “It follows that these separated churches and Communities, though we believe they suffer from defects, are deprived neither of significance nor importance in the mystery of salvation," it certainly does refer to the Orthodox as suffering defects. The “separated churches” refer to those actual churches (like the Orthodox) that are not in communion with Rome, and the “Communities” is a reference to Protestants. The same document also states, "It is through the celebration of the Eucharist of the Lord in each of these Churches that the Church of God is built up and grows in stature. However, since communion with the Catholic Church, the visible head of which is the Bishop of Rome and the Successor of Peter, is not some external complement to a particular Church but rather one of its internal constitutive principles, these venerable Christian communities lack something in their condition as particular churches." So, not only does this document, approved by Pope Benedict, assert that the Orthodox are defective, it does so exactly on the basis that they are not in communion with the Bishop of Rome.
 
In stating, “It follows that these separated churches and Communities, though we believe they suffer from defects, are deprived neither of significance nor importance in the mystery of salvation," it certainly does refer to the Orthodox as suffering defects. The “separated churches” refer to those actual churches (like the Orthodox) that are not in communion with Rome, and the “Communities” is a reference to Protestants.
Maybe it’s just how I interprete it, but I don’t see a blanket statement that says that all ‘separated churches and communities’ necessarily suffer from defects. He writes “though we believe they suffer from defects”, rather than “though we believe they all suffer from defects”. In any case, I agree with you. If there is a defect in the lack of communion, it is equally apportioned to Catholics, Orthodox and Assyrians alike. 🙂
 
In stating, “It follows that these separated churches and Communities, though we believe they suffer from defects, are deprived neither of significance nor importance in the mystery of salvation," it certainly does refer to the Orthodox as suffering defects. The “separated churches” refer to those actual churches (like the Orthodox) that are not in communion with Rome, and the “Communities” is a reference to Protestants. The same document also states, "It is through the celebration of the Eucharist of the Lord in each of these Churches that the Church of God is built up and grows in stature. However, since communion with the Catholic Church, the visible head of which is the Bishop of Rome and the Successor of Peter, is not some external complement to a particular Church but rather one of its internal constitutive principles, these venerable Christian communities lack something in their condition as particular churches." So, not only does this document, approved by Pope Benedict, assert that the Orthodox are defective, it does so exactly on the basis that they are not in communion with the Bishop of Rome.
Fair enough. I have been proven wrong, and I concede. My apologies. 🙂
 
First there was the unilateral addition of the Filioque in the Nicene Creed by Germanic Popes.
You present the impression that a certain Pope who was a man of Germanic origin woke up one day and inserted something he, the night before, invented into the Nicene Creed and then commanded all to say it. Later, you make this claim appear even more absurd by insisting that the Popes were little less than mere vassals appointed by either the Gothic or Frankish kings who rose to predominance in the West after the sack of Rome, but nonetheless we are to believe that, in spite of all the different kingdoms and ethnic groups that existed in the West, someone perceieved to be a mere vassal of but one of all those kings, yet had the power to command them all and their diverse subjects without difficulty.

Regardless, the Holy See has perogatives granted to it and it alone by God with the Promise of His help in all matters of Faith, morals and discipline. The Nicene Creed itself would be null and worthless if it were not for Rome’s approbation of it.
Secondly, there was the denial that the Roman Emperor of the East was even Roman, a true diplomatic slight coming from the new Germanic masters of Rome, who installed their own in the papacy.
The contradiction contained in this statement is overwhelming.

You insist on calling Popes “Germanic Popes” - a term I have never even heard of, mind you - and then proceed to complain of the Roman Pontiff’s supposed insistence that the Eastern Roman Emperors were not Romans? Seeing as Rome was not part of the Eastern Roman Empire and that the Popes were actually in the City of Rome, I think I could appreciate their supposed objection to the idea that an Empire that did not and could not even control the namesake of its Empire (the City of Rome) would consider itself Roman. By the time of the fall of the Western Roman Empire the East was not in any position to do anything about it.

You can quote a source if you like on this issue, but I can recall another source from memory, Edward Gibbon’s famous historical classic, The Decline and Fall of the Roman Empire, which was written by a man who had no affinity whatsoever, whether natural or spiritual, for either West or East: Roman or Greek, as he was an Englishman and an Anglican. His work makes plain that the Eastern Roman Empire was, for all intents and purposes, wholly Greek even by the time of Justinian’s conquests, which was about the 6th or 7th century A.D (if I recall correctly), and was - if I recall correctly - the last time the Eastern Empire ever tried to make good on its claims to the West or, in particular, Rome or Italy. From that point on Romans truly were a people who lived in an Italian city, which had nothing to do with the Eastern Roman Empire. Hence why most people begin to refer to it as the Byzantine Empire starting around this period, but certainly at least by the time of the Great Schism.

Lastly, you know full-well that as Patriarch of the West the Roman Pontiff had every right to ensure the Church there remained free from any inappropriate control or interference. Caesaro-Papism, might I well remind you, and very much contrary to your depiction of history, was a problem long before the Great Schism, as we see even in Constantine’s time and with his descendants, and a more serious problem after that in the East than in the West, owing to the collapse of the Western Roman Empire. It was a problem in both East and West and so I fail to see how it could possibly ever be brought-up as if it were a “change” from things in the past, when it truth it was par for the course.

Furthermore, if the aims of the Roman Pontiffs in their reforms were to ensure the liberty of the Church from lay or political control, then what could possibly be the problem with that? At the very least the Pope was stressing the doctrine of the proper division between temporal and spiritual powers, with the latter taking precedence especially over ecclesiastical affairs and interests, e.g. Church property.

Your challenge then appears to be based only on the existence of the Flioque clause’s existence in the West, which existed for a long time before the Great Schism. It hardly compares to a complete break with ancient tradition of Apostolic origin that the Petrine See held both a primacy and a preeminence, and all other Sees drew their authority from that See as a stream from its font.
 
I believe you are referring to this? It was issued by Cardinal Levada, not the Pope, but that’s besides the point. 🙂

vatican.va/roman_curia/congregations/cfaith/documents/rc_con_cfaith_doc_20070629_responsa-quaestiones_en.html

It does not claim that the Orthodox Chuches are themselves defective, let alone because they are not in communion with Rome. Rather, it admits that there may be groups that may be true to the faith in Christ, even though some of them may not possess all of His gifts. This may not be referring to the Orthodox Church at all. In fact, I believe he is referring to some Protestant groups who suffer from a lack of sacraments and theological insufficiency despite their fervour for holiness. 😉

In any case, his answer is about affirming the fullness of faith that the Catholic Church holds, rather than saying that all other groups do not. Let us not fret about attributing defects. We all have our faults to bear, and a responsibility to realise a future reunion. 😃
I remember what he is talking about. It was one of the first things Benedict XVI released as pope.

While he did refer to Orthodox as defective due to the lack of a Pope, this was actually a clarification after noting that Protestants are heretics.
The gist was essentially that Orthodox are much closer than Protestants.
 
In any case, his answer is about affirming the fullness of faith that the Catholic Church holds, rather than saying that all other groups do not. Let us not fret about attributing defects. We all have our faults to bear, and a responsibility to realise a future reunion. 😃
I would be more cautious in your phraseology, as it gives the impression that you imagine that the Church can possess a defect.

The Catholic Church is by definition without spot, stain or wrinkle, because She is the Mystical Body of Christ and His Spouse, such that we can say that if your are seeking Christ’s Church, then you are seeking that Church which hasn’t spot, stain or wrinkle and is “One, Holy, Catholic and Apostolic.” While it is true that all men are sinners; nonetheless, and as the saying goes, “the student is only as good as the teacher.” If, then, the True Church were subject to fault or defect, then by consequence She would be incapable of producing true and even examplary holiness in Her members, which is saintliness; and the Holy Catholic Church is (again by definition) “the communion of Saints.”
 
The Nicene Creed itself would be null and worthless if it were not for Rome’s approbation of it.
I find this statement to be very problematic. The approbation of the Pope of a creed affirms its truth, it does not make it true. If the Nicene Creed is true, it was true prior to its approbation by the Pope. The Pope defines truth, but does not stand above it.

Furthermore, in the ancient Church, there were numerous local baptismal creeds, many of which the Popes no doubt had no knowledge. So, if they were indeed true, were they null and worthless, since they lacked the approbation of the Pope? Certainly not.

That which is true is true. Articles of the faith, which are, as we believe, objectively true, are articulated and defined for the faithful by the bishops, first of whom is the Pope. However, they are not true because the bishops or the faithful say so. Rather, the bishops and the faithful are bound to the articles of faith, and God grants the bishops the charism of defining them rightly for the benefit of the faithful, because they are in fact true.
 
You present the impression that a certain Pope who was a man of Germanic origin woke up one day and inserted something he, the night before, invented into the Nicene Creed and then commanded all to say it. Later, you make this claim appear even more absurd by insisting that the Popes were little less than mere vassals appointed by either the Gothic or Frankish kings who rose to predominance in the West after the sack of Rome, but nonetheless we are to believe that, in spite of all the different kingdoms and ethnic groups that existed in the West, someone perceieved to be a mere vassal of but one of all those kings, yet had the power to command them all and their diverse subjects without difficulty.
The European royalty had tremendous influence over the popes.
Regardless, the Holy See has perogatives granted to it and it alone by God with the Promise of His help in all matters of Faith, morals and discipline. The Nicene Creed itself would be null and worthless if it were not for Rome’s approbation of it.
If Rome had denied the Nicene Creed, then Rome would have been anathematized as heretical.
The contradiction contained in this statement is overwhelming.
You insist on calling Popes “Germanic Popes” - a term I have never even heard of, mind you - and then proceed to complain of the Roman Pontiff’s supposed insistence that the Eastern Roman Emperors were not Romans? Seeing as Rome was not part of the Eastern Roman Empire and that the Popes were actually in the City of Rome, I think I could appreciate their supposed objection to the idea that an Empire that did not and could not even control the namesake of its Empire (the City of Rome) would consider itself Roman. By the time of the fall of the Western Roman Empire the East was not in any position to do anything about it.
They were Germanic Popes, as they were ethnically German, not Latin or Greek. The Eastern Roman Empire had a continuity of history with the Roman Empire. One can’t single out a single point in time when they stopped identifying themselves as Roman. The Latin West’s insistence on calling them Greek, because their new Frankish Emperors needed to be legitimized, caused incredible amounts of diplomatic strain.
You can quote a source if you like on this issue, but I can recall another source from memory, Edward Gibbon’s famous historical classic, The Decline and Fall of the Roman Empire, which was written by a man who had no affinity whatsoever, whether natural or spiritual, for either West or East: Roman or Greek, as he was an Englishman and an Anglican. His work makes plain that the Eastern Roman Empire was, for all intents and purposes, wholly Greek even by the time of Justinian’s conquests, which was about the 6th or 7th century A.D (if I recall correctly), and was - if I recall correctly - the last time the Eastern Empire ever tried to make good on its claims to the West or, in particular, Rome or Italy. From that point on Romans truly were a people who lived in an Italian city, which had nothing to do with the Eastern Roman Empire. Hence why most people begin to refer to it as the Byzantine Empire starting around this period, but certainly at least by the time of the Great Schism.
The problem is that you associate Roman with Latin. The Latins and Greeks were linguistic groups, but Rome was an Empire. Even to this day the so-called “Greeks” are known in the Middle East by the Arabs and Turks as “Rum,” because they always self-identified as Romans, not as Greeks. For example, the Greek Orthodox Patriarchate of Constantinople is known as the Roman Patriarchate of Constantinople to the Turks.
Lastly, you know full-well that as Patriarch of the West the Roman Pontiff had every right to ensure the Church there remained free from any inappropriate control or interference. Caesaro-Papism, might I well remind you, and very much contrary to your depiction of history, was a problem long before the Great Schism, as we see even in Constantine’s time and with his descendants, and a more serious problem after that in the East than in the West, owing to the collapse of the Western Roman Empire. It was a problem in both East and West and so I fail to see how it could possibly ever be brought-up as if it were a “change” from things in the past, when it truth it was par for the course.
The popes of the past were quite happy to be submissive to the Eastern Emperors. Take Leo, for example, who assented to Emperor Marcian’s decision to call the Fourth Ecumenical Council in Chalcedon, despite Pope Leo’s objections. Similarly, the election of popes was often influenced by the Exarch of Ravenna during the two-hundred year existence of the Exarchate. This does indeed reflect a change in how the Latins ran their church. Never before the Gregorian Reforms did the West know such a powerful papacy. It is funny to me, by the way, to see how some are so willing to decry “Caesaro-Papism,” when the Latin Church was happy to attempt to exploit it twice to force a union through the power of the Eastern Emperors.
 
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