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I don’t want to get too deep into this since I think we’re in agreement on the overall question, but a few things for the record:
First, Paul was a resident of the Eastern Empire, whose lingua franca was Greek. Second, he was writing mostly (though not exclusively) to audiences in the Greek-speaking world. And finally, there would be internal evidence in the text itself to suggest translation from a Latin original, once again given how much more specific the Greek language is in matters of philosophy and theology. There is no such internal evidence.
It’s thus fair to say (and I think most historians Catholic and otherwise would agree) that Latin was sidelined as a language of theology for the first four centuries or so of Christianity. Latin doesn’t come to play a prominent role until Augustine and Jerome took up their pens in the Western Empire. For this reason, and others I’ve already outlined, it would be fallacious to suggest that Latin is “God’s language,” and we must in fact appreciate the effect that the various languages of our polyglot church have had on the theology of the church.
St. Jerome’s Bible was more or less contemporary with Augustine… The point being again, there is no evidence of scriptures written in Latin in the first centuries of the Church. While it is theoretically POSSIBLE that Paul wrote the scriptures in Latin, not only is there no historical evidence to make us believe this to begin with, but there is also substantial reason to affirm that he didn’t he didn’t:You forget the Vetus Latina, an older version of the Bible, of which many books were updated by St. Jerome to bring them up to par with the Hebrew, Greek, and Aramaic texts. St. Paul might have written Romans in Latin but all of the original NT works have all been lost. Not to mention that before Gutenberg, most things were handwritten and we all know how rare good handwriting can be. So one copy of something is barely reliable.
First, Paul was a resident of the Eastern Empire, whose lingua franca was Greek. Second, he was writing mostly (though not exclusively) to audiences in the Greek-speaking world. And finally, there would be internal evidence in the text itself to suggest translation from a Latin original, once again given how much more specific the Greek language is in matters of philosophy and theology. There is no such internal evidence.
It’s thus fair to say (and I think most historians Catholic and otherwise would agree) that Latin was sidelined as a language of theology for the first four centuries or so of Christianity. Latin doesn’t come to play a prominent role until Augustine and Jerome took up their pens in the Western Empire. For this reason, and others I’ve already outlined, it would be fallacious to suggest that Latin is “God’s language,” and we must in fact appreciate the effect that the various languages of our polyglot church have had on the theology of the church.