B
beng
Guest
And I feel the need (cause I missed it) to comment on mardukm’s reply to Ignatos:
"mardukm:
Previously he said that there’s a difference between “consent” and “consensus.”
Now, it appears that the difference is between “confusing consent/consensus as WITNESS” and “consent/consensus as JUDGMENT.”
What happens to the difference between “consent” and “consensus?”
At first mardukm clarified that it’s “past AND PRESENT” but now it’s “PRESENT” only. Which is it?
Btw, +Gasser himself stated that in determining the faith of the Church the PRESENT magisterium could fail. This seems not about the act of judging, but of learning what is exactly the deposit of faith really says on the matter (in other word learning the faith of the Church).
"mardukm:
Because… THE “LITTLE SNIPPETS” IS ALL I HAVE!!! Why don’t you send your book (James T. O’Connor’s book) to me then?Secondly, as is typical of your and brother Beng’s tactics, you only rely on little snippets to create your caricatures of the papacy.
Like brother Beng, you are confusing consent/consensus as WITNESS from consent/consensus as JUDGMENT. Bishop Gasser specifically explains what he meant (which would be lost on people like you and brother Beng, since you always rely on little snippets for your caricatures and can’t see the forest for the trees):
“It is true that in his definitions ex cathedra, the Pope has the same founts as the Church.”
The Church cannot contradict these founts, and neither can the Pope. THAT is why the consent of the Church is always implied. It is not because the Pope can create new doctrine, and the Church has to kowtow to that new doctrine. It is because the Church has the same founts of doctrine as the Pope has when exercising his Extraordinary Magisterium, and the Pope has absolutely no authority to deviate from the standard of the Faith from these identical founts.
If I were mardukm, this is the time when I would say “backtracking.”CONTINUED
Previously he said that there’s a difference between “consent” and “consensus.”
Now, it appears that the difference is between “confusing consent/consensus as WITNESS” and “consent/consensus as JUDGMENT.”
What happens to the difference between “consent” and “consensus?”
This is confusing.CONTINUED
Oh yes, this is something even the early Church recognized. The only thing that the Pope actually does individually in the process of making an ex cathedra decree is the judgment itself (a judgment that must never contradict the consensus of the present preaching of the whole Magisterium or - in other words- the sensus fidei). In the same way, the Council of Sardica recognized that the judgment of whether an aggrieved bishop has a case worthy to be retried belonged singularly to the bishop of Rome and no one else. Similarly, the Third Ecumenical Council (and most other Ecum Councils) explicitly recognized that it was the Pope’s prerogative to confirm its acts, and no one else’s.
So yes, what you say is true - that the Pope can act without the bishops. But that act is limited to the actual instance of judging (which is a volitional, free and personal act of the Pope), while ALL ELSE IS COLLEGIAL. Please don’t try to exaggerate, extrapolate, or generalize that statement from Bishop Gasser as a reference to EVERY SINGLE ACT of the Pope. The context (a concept which very likely is impossible concept for you to grasp) indicates that Gasser was only referring to the unique exercise of “papal infallibility.”
At first mardukm clarified that it’s “past AND PRESENT” but now it’s “PRESENT” only. Which is it?
Btw, +Gasser himself stated that in determining the faith of the Church the PRESENT magisterium could fail. This seems not about the act of judging, but of learning what is exactly the deposit of faith really says on the matter (in other word learning the faith of the Church).