Well that depends on a rather limited (and arbitrary) definition of ‘stealing’. Take writing for example. A common practice among writers is to use alpha and beta readers; basically people who read an unfinished story as its being written and critique it.
If an alpha reader takes the story he is reading, publishes it under his own name, and sells books containing that story, most people would say that he has stolen the idea. He has deprived the person of their rightful claim as author, and also by selling it he is depriving them of their rightful wages as the true author.
If we argue semantics, we could theoretically claim that ‘stealing’ is not the moral crime being committed here, but regardless, it is a moral crime. And I think that would be a very weak argument, because the definitions of words are somewhat determined by the common usage, and common usage would support the description of ‘stealing’ in describing the aforementioned case.
The same with the word ‘property’. One could argue, semantically, that ‘property’ should only be defined as physical goods. That would be a weak argument. One, semantics arguments are notoriously weak anyway, and two, common usage and even legal standards would argue against such limited usage.
Ideas are not limited, but a single idea is limited. If I take credit for the invention (or discovery) of a particular idea, I have excluded all others from being the inventors (or discoverers) of that idea. This is obviously limited by practical considerations. I can name my marketable band ‘The Beatles’ because 'beatles" is a common word with common usage that long predates the famous 60s group. I cannot name my marketable band ‘Metallica’ because that is a made-up word and it’s usage is historically exclusive to that single context.
There are also uses of parody that would go into this. Those would provide cover for someone like Wierd Al Yankovich who replicates precise musical arrangements, but does so under the obvious use of parody.