N
nfinke
Guest
This thought occured to me the other day and I’ve been turning it over in my head. (Hopefully this won’t be too vulgar for this site)
It’s entirely clear why male masturbation is contrary to the natural law. You are committing an act which, if simply done in the intended location, would most likely result in reproduction, and is the only act that can result in that, and is therefore naturally ordered for that purpose. Committing that act in such a way that it’s intended purpose is impossible is obviously contrary to natural law.
However, female masturbation is different. A woman is not doing anything that would result in reproduction if just done slightly differently. This is due to a woman’s nature as the “receiver” of the reproductive act. Often women will stimulate parts of the body that aren’t stimulated at all in the reproductive act, and unlike men, female orgasm isnt linked to what she needs to do for reproduction at all.
So, unlike a man, I don’t see a masturbating woman as committing an act that is intrinsically ordered towards reproduction, and then robbing it of it’s purpose. I guess it might still be seen as vulgar and indecent, but those are much much weaker arguments for it’s sinfulness than a violation of natural moral law. It really does seem like it has the natural moral value of scratching an itch, with added enjoyment.
So does female masturbation violation violate natural law? And if not is it sinful (according to the RCC) for some other reason?
It’s entirely clear why male masturbation is contrary to the natural law. You are committing an act which, if simply done in the intended location, would most likely result in reproduction, and is the only act that can result in that, and is therefore naturally ordered for that purpose. Committing that act in such a way that it’s intended purpose is impossible is obviously contrary to natural law.
However, female masturbation is different. A woman is not doing anything that would result in reproduction if just done slightly differently. This is due to a woman’s nature as the “receiver” of the reproductive act. Often women will stimulate parts of the body that aren’t stimulated at all in the reproductive act, and unlike men, female orgasm isnt linked to what she needs to do for reproduction at all.
So, unlike a man, I don’t see a masturbating woman as committing an act that is intrinsically ordered towards reproduction, and then robbing it of it’s purpose. I guess it might still be seen as vulgar and indecent, but those are much much weaker arguments for it’s sinfulness than a violation of natural moral law. It really does seem like it has the natural moral value of scratching an itch, with added enjoyment.
So does female masturbation violation violate natural law? And if not is it sinful (according to the RCC) for some other reason?
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