C
chrysostim83
Guest
The question may seem a little strange, but let me develop a couple arguments on behalf of the prosecution:
- As God intends sexuality only for marriage, we must count as a disorder any desire for another person who is not here-and-now one’s spouse. But since heterosexuality is marked by a tendency to experience sexual attractions towards members of the opposite sex, there is nothing in the heterosexual condition itself that limits the desires it gives rise to to one person. Therefore, heterosexuality is at odds with God’s plan for sexuality, i.e., it is disordered.
- The heterosexual condition gives rise to sexual attractions which in turn give rise to sexual thoughts. Now, sexual thoughts, if consented to, are sinful unless they arise at the proper time and place and concern only one’s spouse. Since, again, there is nothing in the heterosexual condition itself that limits these thoughts to the proper time and place and to being about one’s spouse alone, it follows that the heterosexual condition is marked by a tendency to experience thoughts which, if consented to, are sinful. Therefore, heterosexuality is disordered.