Apoligies i’m going to slice your quote a little here to answer:
Well, no, I’m not trying to call a “lack of morality” a disease…Snipped for slicing …However, I would say that the fact that someone is aroused by someone of the same gender constitutes a disorder of some sort, even if it is not a disorder of the mind (i.e., a mental illness). People are not supposed to be sexually attracted to persons of the same gender any more than people are supposed to be attracted to prepubescent children. The deviation from the norm is what I would think constitutes a disorder.
Whilst saying it not a lack of maraility your then go on to explain the “disorder” as not fitting with the morality of the Catholic Church. Using the word ‘disorder’ in this context seems as though you are still trying to make it a “medical disease” but your basis is your own personal morality.
Does that make sense? In the Catholic Faith we believe that homosexual acts are morally wrong, that doesn’t make it a disease though. I understand what you are trying to say but the basis of your judgement for this is not scientific so it is not a disease diagnoised and as i say it reads like you are replacing disease with disorder but giving it the same meaning… it does not change the facts though.
re placed from my slicing … because I don’t see homosexual arousal as a moral lapse any more that I see heterosexual arousal as a moral lapse. Sexual arousal is generally involuntary, so if a person finds that he/she is aroused by someone of the same gender, I don’t automatically attribute that arousal to a moral failing because there was not necessarily any conscious choice at work.
I may be misunderstanding you as you say that arousal in any gender attraction is not immoral, then as above use arousal in homosexulaity to define itself as wrong based on moral justification because is same sex arousal.
It comes across as a little muddles. You’ll have to explain further for it to be clearer.
Comparing pedophilia to homosexulaity is simply inappropriate. The act of pedophilia is against a child, against the law, has no comparision to consenting adult attraction/acts. Sorry i simply dont see a correlation between the two.
Question: According to the criteria by which the Hooker study disqualified homosexuality as being a mental illness, can pedophilia be similarly disqualified? If not, why not?
Whilst i don’t agree with this comparison at all…i will try and frame an answer for you.
Basically the Hooker study at its most simple, tested participants based on stringent controls and methods assesing behavior, potential pathology, lifestyle etc. These were examined and found to be indistinguishable as the tests of homosexula persons. They could have been the repsonses from a heterosexual. This is a very basic over simplification but the essense of the study.
There have been hundreds of empirical studies on pedophilia which have distinct pathology and diagnosisable behaviors specific to this group of people. In addition a criteria axis in the DSM includes overt acts of a sexual nature against children. This is clear empirical basis for diagnosis, as well as the obvious victims are raped, molested and their choice removed this is illegal as well as psychologically defined as a disease.
I do think that your are comparing apples and cars here there is no correlation between the two areas at all, their pathology, behavior etc. are as distinctly different as that between a heterosexual and a pedohile.