A
Arandur
Guest
Why statements? They may be summaries of data, but they don’t source data, so they don’t back themselves up with fact as directly as studies do. Statements are also formulated in a different language; while studies try to hold to neutral language, statements aren’t so rigorous, tending to not be as value-neutral.(Keep in mind, I will not be citing studies, but statements. If the current tone persists, I’ll get on LexisNexis and find over 50 studies which can refute many of the common stereotypes.)
What “current tone?”
What are you trying to show with this? What is the definition of “disorder?” In context, the APA seems to be using a clinical definition that is based on frequency of observation. At a certain frequency, they seem to conclude that these behaviors are “normal aspects of human sexuality” and thus, merely by that virtue (and “no inherent association” with a clinical psychopathology), not a “disorder.” Even if it goes beyond this limited definition, it merely gets into the realm of asserting a value judgment with no explanation of how that value judgment was arrived at or why it is valid.Research has found no inherent association between any of these sexual orientations and psychopathology. Both heterosexual behavior and homosexual behavior are normal aspects of human sexuality. Both have been documented in many different cultures and historical eras.
This statement does little for a discussion of moral philosophy that I can see.
Whoa, hang on, the second sentence does not follow from the first. The data cited from the survey do not come from a question of preference (the first sentence suggests “want”), but infers it from a statistic of “romantic relationships.” No explanation is made of the leap from “romantic relationships” to “committed relationships.” There’s quite a difference. Particularly in the culture today where the idea of “committed” has been watered down to not mean “life-long” as in “marriage.” In fact, even though I’ve talked with many gay people who advocate gay marriage, very few even among them want anything to do with lifelong marriage. And many gay people say they don’t care a whit about gay marriage because they don’t want it. Yes, this is my anecdotal experience, but it is just an example of how “romantic relationships” can differ in definition from “committed relationships” and that from “life-long marriage.”Research indicates that many lesbians and gay men want and have committed relationships. *For example, survey data indicate that between 40% and 60% of gay men and between 45% and 80% of lesbians are currently involved in a romantic relationship… *
Shoddy language used here by the APA if you ask me.
Again, are they talking about a preponderance of studies? Are they talking about studies have shown that it is possible, or that it is just as common? Because in all my research I have not found one study that has not been challenged by quite a variety of non-secular peers that claims that on the whole, across the statistical populations, homosexuals have matched heterosexuals for happiness and health–which can be quite different than “relationship satisfaction and commitment” (the latter criteria sounds like it could be met by two people happy to be in a non-monogamous relationship of casual sex). You yourself have admitted differences in psychological health profiles of the populations.
- For instance, one stereotype is that the relationships of lesbians and gay men are dysfunctional and unhappy. However, studies have found same-sex and heterosexual couples to be equivalent to each other on measures of relationship satisfaction and commitment.*
Again, a very misleading statement, or at best one not qualified well.
[/indent]…It is also reasonable to suggest that the stability of same-sex couples might be enhanced if partners from same-sex couples enjoyed the same levels of support and recognition for their relationships as heterosexual couples do, i.e., legal rights and responsibilities associated with marriage.
This qualification presupposes a difference in stability levels as compared to heterosexual couples, otherwise the hypothesis that more support would help improve those numbers makes no sense. Yet how can you claim to disprove the validity of a generalization if the generalization is actually based on a relative difference when compared against heterosexuals that you agree exists?