Is indissolubility of marriage an infallible teaching?

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I’m not aware of any “civil annulments”…my understanding is that “annulment” is a specifically Catholic term. Not civil. Civil authorities may grant divorces, or separations, or similar…but annulments? Please clarify. thanks.
Incorrect. There are civil annulments; one of the grounds is for marriage too close in sanguinity. Depending on the state, there are various grounds. There simply are not many decrees of annulment from civil courts, however.
 
NO, it’s quite clear according to Catholic teaching, as prefect of the CDF he does not teach infallibly.
read what I said. I said “as bishop”. not as “prefect”.
I have no idea what you mean, relevant to Church teaching and Canon Law, with that statement. Can you please clarify? Thanks.
De Fide - “from the Faith”. From Scripture and/or Tradition.
If it was made by the Pope, then why did the CDF have to come out later and say the same thing? Why was clarification necessary? Nothing similar was necessary following Pius IX’s declaration of the Immaculate Conception, nor Pius XII’s declaration of the Assumtion. So what’s the difference?
John Paul used language that some scholars said was the wording used for an ex-cathedra statement. That ;was what the fuss was about, and that is why Ratzinger stepped in to clarify that it was not intended to be an ex-cathdera statement and in fact was not. It wa, however, infallible
Your and my disagreeing with certain theologians does not make them wrong
No, our disagreement does not make them wrong. The teaching of the Church makes them wrong. You can follow the Church, or you can follow dissenting theologians.

We are straying off topic (it is about marriage, not about women’s ordination of the impossiblity thereof); perhaps we should get back to the issue of marriage.

If you wish to start a topic about ordination, please feel free to do so (I think there are other threads on the matter).
 
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De Fide - “from the Faith”. From Scripture and/or Tradition.
That doesn’t really help. All Church teachings flow from Scripture and/or Tradition. Right?

What makes teachings taught infallibly distinct from other Church teachings?
 
John Paul used language that some scholars said was the wording used for an ex-cathedra statement.
Exactly my point. And the point many theologians and canonists make. See Canon Law 749. Did John Paul II make his teaching “manifestly evident” regarding the criteria for inallibly teaching? That’s the question that is open, from what I’ve read.

If he did, then why did the CDF and Cardinal Ratzinger have the need to weigh in on it? Doesn’t that mean or at least imply there was a question about whether or not such was taught infallibly? No one (to my knowledge) questioned the infallible teachings of the Immaculate Conception or Assumption…so why the CDF intervention on this one?
 
Bishops, apart from the Bishop of Rome, do not possess the charism of teaching infallibly.
Catechism of the Catholic Church, paragraph 891:

“…The infallibility promised to the Church is also presnt in the body of bishops when, together with Peter’s successor, they exercise the supreme Magisterium,” above all in an Ecumenical Council…
 
Exactly my point. And the point many theologians and canonists make. See Canon Law 749. Did John Paul II make his teaching “manifestly evident” regarding the criteria for inallibly teaching? That’s the question that is open, from what I’ve read.

If he did, then why did the CDF and Cardinal Ratzinger have the need to weigh in on it? Doesn’t that mean or at least imply there was a question about whether or not such was taught infallibly? No one (to my knowledge) questioned the infallible teachings of the Immaculate Conception or Assumption…so why the CDF intervention on this one?
Asked and answered.
 
Catechism of the Catholic Church, paragraph 891:

“…The infallibility promised to the Church is also presnt in the body of bishops when, together with Peter’s successor, they exercise the supreme Magisterium,” above all in an Ecumenical Council…
Yes, of course. The body of bishops…not one individual bishop (apart from the Bishop of Rome, the Pope).

So…your point is…what?
 
Yes, of course. The body of bishops…not one individual bishop (apart from the Bishop of Rome, the Pope).

So…your point is…what?
Not quite. It is not an amorphous “body of bishps”. Each bishop shares in (has the charism of) infallibility when, he acts with his fellow bishops in teaching. That does not require all bishops to come together to teach something at one time. If the bishop is teaching Magisterially, he is guided by the charism of infallibility. So: if he is teaching about a matter held infallibly by the Church, which his fellow bishops teach, he teaches infallibly. That is to say, if he is teaching a matter held by the Church since its inception, infallibly, he teaches infallibly.
 
Not quite. It is not an amorphous “body of bishps”. Each bishop shares in (has the charism of) infallibility when, he acts with his fellow bishops in teaching. That does not require all bishops to come together to teach something at one time. If the bishop is teaching Magisterially, he is guided by the charism of infallibility. So: if he is teaching about a matter held infallibly by the Church, which his fellow bishops teach, he teaches infallibly. That is to say, if he is teaching a matter held by the Church since its inception, infallibly, he teaches infallibly.
Not quite.

An individual Bishop, apart from the Bishop of Rome, cannot teach infallibly on his own.

The Church can teach infallibly in three ways:
  1. The Pope (Bishop of Rome) teaching ex cathedra.
  2. The body of Bishops (not amorphous!) gathered with the Pope at an ecumenical council, and.
  3. The body of BIshops (again, not amorphous) united with the Pope and the whole college of bishops while not physically gathered who yet proclaim an essential truth.
Note…none of these refer to an individual Bishop (except the Pope) exercising the charism of teaching infallibly.
 
Not quite.
  1. The body of BIshops (again, not amorphous) united with the Pope and the whole college of bishops while not physically gathered who yet proclaim an essential truth.
And that is done when the bishop teaches. On his own. Because except at Councils, the bishops are not together. It is plain on its face. I didn’t say any bishop has the charism on his own; but he teaches on his own. The charism is the protection of the Holy Spirit, guiding the Church, through the individual bishops, teaching on their own, that which they all teach (that is, all hold, as each one might not have thought to teach the individual issue that year!:rolleyes:)
 
And that is done when the bishop teaches. On his own.
No, as the Church teaches, it is only done when the whole college of Bishops teaches together, whether gathered at an ecumenical Council or dispersed yet still teaching in unison with the Pope.

If you disagree, please share some authoritative Church teaching.
 
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