E
ehira
Guest
Why is it that philosophy does not consider as “persons” who do not have the following?
rational nature
self-conscious
autonomy
(for example)
For instance, using the Baby Theresa example, they argue that she was not a “person” philosophically speaking (She was biologically). I would like some clarification on this. Is it correct to state something like this?
It has been claimed that if you are a person in the philosophical sense, then you are considered worthy to be treated as such morally speaking. If you don’t meet those standards, then you are not a “person” and do not get the “privileges” that a person in the philosophical sense would receive.
rational nature
self-conscious
autonomy
(for example)
For instance, using the Baby Theresa example, they argue that she was not a “person” philosophically speaking (She was biologically). I would like some clarification on this. Is it correct to state something like this?
It has been claimed that if you are a person in the philosophical sense, then you are considered worthy to be treated as such morally speaking. If you don’t meet those standards, then you are not a “person” and do not get the “privileges” that a person in the philosophical sense would receive.