L
lilrips1
Guest
I’ve gotten to a blocking point in my understanding of the Church’s teaching on artificial birth control. With NFP, of course it is possible for a couple to use each other as objects for pleasure, but it is also possible (and the ideal) not to.
I understand that with ABC, there is no “common good,” no potential child in the mindset, but rather each person feels personal pleasure, and that pleasure is not shared. However, this doesn’t seem like enough to prove that it is impossible for a couple NOT to use each other during the marital act while using ABC. I imagine the syllogism goes like this:
When couples practice ABC during intercourse, there is no common good.
Without a common good, couples must be using each.
Therefore, couples who practice ABC during intercourse must be using each.
I don’t know how these premises are shown to be true or not. Can someone shed some light on this?
I understand that with ABC, there is no “common good,” no potential child in the mindset, but rather each person feels personal pleasure, and that pleasure is not shared. However, this doesn’t seem like enough to prove that it is impossible for a couple NOT to use each other during the marital act while using ABC. I imagine the syllogism goes like this:
When couples practice ABC during intercourse, there is no common good.
Without a common good, couples must be using each.
Therefore, couples who practice ABC during intercourse must be using each.
I don’t know how these premises are shown to be true or not. Can someone shed some light on this?