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every catholic or other religions that is believing of trinity, they will give you the one and only verse in the bible… in john 1:1 "in the beginning was the word, and the word was with god and the word was god"and this is their only evidence that jesus is god. noticed it? haha well, ive got these answer from the other site because i had a research about it…
…what is spoken of in john 1:1,14 as being with god in the beginning is the “word”. hence, in order to understand the real message of john 1:1,14, we should first clarify the meaning of the term “word”. does it really refer to a “pre-existent christ” as others allege? no! the holy scriptures prove instead that the “word” refers to gods “promise” to send his son, which he “announced” before:
“which he promised beforehand through his prophets in the holy scriptures, concerning his son, who was born of a descendant of david according to the flesh” (Rom. 1:2-3, new american standard bible, emphasis ours)
“which he announced before through his prophets in holy writings-- concerning his son,(who is come of the seed of david according to the flesh”(Rom. 1"2-3, youngs literal translation, emphasis ours)
Moreover, Ryrie study bible explains that logos, the greek equivalent of the term “word” in john 1:1 14 means a “thought or concept” (p. 1599). these terms–promise,announcement,thought,concept–refer to things that are abstract,not yet concrete, or not yet “made flesh”. this is similar to a blueprint for a house, which is only a plan and not yet constructed material house. clearly, then, the term “word” in john 1:1 14 is not christ himself but the “foreknowledge” or plan of god concerning christ:
“foreknown, indeed, before the foundation of the world, he has been manifested in the last times for your sakes.” (I pet. 1:20, confraternity version, emphasis ours)
This pronouncement of apostle peter that christ was “foreknown before the foundation of the world” explain the statement in the gospel according to john “in the beginning was the word”. hence, what was there in the beginning was not christ himself but gods “word” or foreknowledge of him. “foreknowledge” is defined by the dictionary as “knowledge of a thing before it happens or exists.”(webster new universal unabridged dictionary) if christ had already been existing before the foundation of the world, then there would not any need to “foreknow” him.
therefore the fact that christ was foreknown before the foundation of the world disproves his so-called pre-existence.
what does the clause “and the word became flesh” mean then? the “word” which was only a thought or plan in the beginning was fulfilled when mary gave birth to jesus (gal.4:4) who is “truly man” (I tim. 2:5) or “indeed flesh” (gen. 6:3) we should not forget that it was the “word” which became flesh and not god himself. John 1:1,14 therefore does not in any way teach that god became man or that christ is god incarnate.
so why then did apostle john state in john 1:1 that “the word was god”? it is because god is almighty or powerful (gen. 35:11) and so are his words (luke 1:37). thus, the “word was god” indeed, but not in the sense that the “word” is another divine being aside from god, but that it possesses the qualities and attributes of god. in john 1:1 the word “god” in the clause “the word was god” is used not as a noun but as an adjective. that is why in other renditions of the bible, such as moffatt and godspeed, john 1:1 states: “the word was divine”…
…what is spoken of in john 1:1,14 as being with god in the beginning is the “word”. hence, in order to understand the real message of john 1:1,14, we should first clarify the meaning of the term “word”. does it really refer to a “pre-existent christ” as others allege? no! the holy scriptures prove instead that the “word” refers to gods “promise” to send his son, which he “announced” before:
“which he promised beforehand through his prophets in the holy scriptures, concerning his son, who was born of a descendant of david according to the flesh” (Rom. 1:2-3, new american standard bible, emphasis ours)
“which he announced before through his prophets in holy writings-- concerning his son,(who is come of the seed of david according to the flesh”(Rom. 1"2-3, youngs literal translation, emphasis ours)
Moreover, Ryrie study bible explains that logos, the greek equivalent of the term “word” in john 1:1 14 means a “thought or concept” (p. 1599). these terms–promise,announcement,thought,concept–refer to things that are abstract,not yet concrete, or not yet “made flesh”. this is similar to a blueprint for a house, which is only a plan and not yet constructed material house. clearly, then, the term “word” in john 1:1 14 is not christ himself but the “foreknowledge” or plan of god concerning christ:
“foreknown, indeed, before the foundation of the world, he has been manifested in the last times for your sakes.” (I pet. 1:20, confraternity version, emphasis ours)
This pronouncement of apostle peter that christ was “foreknown before the foundation of the world” explain the statement in the gospel according to john “in the beginning was the word”. hence, what was there in the beginning was not christ himself but gods “word” or foreknowledge of him. “foreknowledge” is defined by the dictionary as “knowledge of a thing before it happens or exists.”(webster new universal unabridged dictionary) if christ had already been existing before the foundation of the world, then there would not any need to “foreknow” him.
therefore the fact that christ was foreknown before the foundation of the world disproves his so-called pre-existence.
what does the clause “and the word became flesh” mean then? the “word” which was only a thought or plan in the beginning was fulfilled when mary gave birth to jesus (gal.4:4) who is “truly man” (I tim. 2:5) or “indeed flesh” (gen. 6:3) we should not forget that it was the “word” which became flesh and not god himself. John 1:1,14 therefore does not in any way teach that god became man or that christ is god incarnate.
so why then did apostle john state in john 1:1 that “the word was god”? it is because god is almighty or powerful (gen. 35:11) and so are his words (luke 1:37). thus, the “word was god” indeed, but not in the sense that the “word” is another divine being aside from god, but that it possesses the qualities and attributes of god. in john 1:1 the word “god” in the clause “the word was god” is used not as a noun but as an adjective. that is why in other renditions of the bible, such as moffatt and godspeed, john 1:1 states: “the word was divine”…