Is Jesus God?

[adrift]

RESPONSE:

Do you always answer question by refering to some article but not telling the readers what you claim was said? Why is that?

I follow the rules of the forum.

Do not paste articles from web sites into a post. If you wish to reference an article on the web, link to its web address, instead.

It answers your question.

That says what the article is about.

 

[adrift]

RESPONSE

Anyone who is raised from the dead is “risen.”

“…translated like that in his language”? A Polish priest’s language is probably Polish, not English which is the language of the New American Bible.

And always trust a priest from Poland, not the Pope, not the American bishops, not Catholic University of America, not the Catholic Biblical Association.

:bowdown::whacky:

 

[ready]

Dear Brother Ready, by His will may you and yours be blessed and guide by Him as youes submit unto Him

Thank you, Steven, and may God bless you and yours too! I’m a sister in Christ, Steven. I guess I throw people a little off with my user name.

 

[Steven_John]

Thank you, Steven, and may God bless you and yours too! I’m a sister in Christ, Steven. I guess I throw people a little off with my user name.

oops sorry Sister, i have trouble with CAF names.

Pray well and stay well

 

[JP_Marat]

Your answer is meaningless since it misses what I am saying. Post 446 gives the definition of Lord.

RESPONSE:

Oxford Dictionary:

“Lord Used in both OT and NT, as in addressing Moses as leader (Num. 32: 25) and **masters by slaves **(Matt. 18: 25); also by Jesus in reference to the authority of the Son of Man over the Sabbath (Mark 2: 28) and by others in speaking to Jesus as a person with authority (Matt. 7: 21).”

“Lord” is a title of respect for any person with authority. It is not synonymous with God.

 

[JP_Marat]

I follow the rules of the forum.

That says what the article is about.

RESPONSE:

Then how about giving us a summation of what you claim is being proven.

For example, if I want to use the Encyclopedia Britannica to prove a point, should I just cite the Encyclopedia and expect readers to believe me?

I think what the guidelines are saying is not to cut and paste the entire article, not no information at all that the article contains.

But if that is the case, should posters only cite “The Bible” if they are discussing a point in scripture?

 

[NotWorthy]

RESPONSE:

Oxford Dictionary:

“Lord Used in both OT and NT, as in addressing Moses as leader (Num. 32: 25) and **masters by slaves **(Matt. 18: 25); also by Jesus in reference to the authority of the Son of Man over the Sabbath (Mark 2: 28) and by others in speaking to Jesus as a person with authority (Matt. 7: 21).”

“Lord” is a title of respect for any person with authority. It is not synonymous with God.

Let’s look at Luke 1:43 “And how does this happen to me, that the mother of my Lord should come to me?”

Now, let me ask you. Luke uses the word “Lord” 17 times in the 1st chapter. And each other time in chapter 1, its obvious that “Lord” means God. Are you saying that in this one incident, Luke switches gear and uses “Lord” in another context? Wouldn’t that be improper Greek?

 

[JP_Marat]

Let’s look at Luke 1:43 “And how does this happen to me, that the mother of my Lord should come to me?”

Now, let me ask you. Luke uses the word “Lord” 17 times in the 1st chapter. And each other time in chapter 1, its obvious that “Lord” means God. Are you saying that in this one incident, Luke switches gear and uses “Lord” in another context? Wouldn’t that be improper Greek?

RESPONSE:

No. It’s not “obvious” at all. It was a common name for someone in authority. And Son of God doesn’t prove divinity either. “Lord” or “Son of God” are terms of respect.

 

[NotWorthy]

RESPONSE:

No. It’s not “obvious” at all. It was a common name for someone in authority. And Son of God doesn’t prove divinity either. “Lord” or “Son of God” are terms of respect.

Hmmmm…

Let’s look at Luke 1:

***6 ****** Both were righteous in the eyes of God, observing all the commandments and ordinances of the Lord ***blamelessly. (Here, “Lord” equals "God)

***9 ****** according to the practice of the priestly service, he was chosen by lot to enter the sanctuary of the Lord ***to burn incense. (And again, “Lord” = "God)

11 ****** the angel of the Lord appeared to him, standing at the right of the altar of incense.(And again, “Lord” = "God)
15 ****** for he will be great in the sight of (the) Lord. He will drink neither wine nor strong drink. He will be filled with the holy Spirit even from his mother’s womb,(Wow! This is the 4th time in just 15 verses. And each time “Lord” = “God)***
16 ****** and he will turn many of the children of Israel to the Lord their God. (And again, “Lord” = "God)
17 ****** He will go before him in the spirit and power of Elijah to turn the hearts of fathers toward children and the disobedient to the understanding of the righteous, to prepare a people fit for the Lord***.” (And again, “Lord” = “God)
25 ****** “So has the Lord done for me at a time when he has seen fit to take away my disgrace before others.” (And again, “Lord” = "God)
28 And coming to her, he said, “Hail, favored one! The Lord is with you.” (New scene! And yet, “Lord” = "God)
32 ****** He will be great and will be called Son of the Most High, and the Lord God will give him the throne of David his father, (And again, “Lord” = "God)
38 ****** Mary said, "Behold, I am the handmaid of the Lord. May it be done to me according to your word.” Then the angel departed from her. (And again, “Lord” = "God)***
43 ****** And how does this happen to me, that the mother of my Lord ***should come to me? (OK, this is the 10th incident of Lord. Could the context of Luke all of a sudden changed? Let’s read on)
45 ****** Blessed are you who believed that what was spoken to you by the Lord would be fulfilled." (Nope, we are back to the exact same context. “Lord” = "God)
46 ****** And Mary said: "My soul proclaims the greatness of the Lord; (And again, “Lord” = "God)
58 ****** Her neighbors and relatives heard that the Lord had shown his great mercy toward her, and they rejoiced with her. (There’s that whole “Lord” = “God” thing again!)
66 ****** All who heard these things took them to heart, saying, “What, then, will this child be?” For surely the hand of the Lord was with him. (And again, “Lord” = "God)
68 *** "Blessed be the Lord, the God of Israel, for he has visited and brought redemption to his people. (And again, “Lord” = "God)
76 ****** And you, child, will be called prophet of the Most High, for you will go before the Lord ***to prepare his ways, (And again, “Lord” = "God)

So, it looks like it is obvious to me.

 

[JP_Marat]

Hmmmm…

Let’s look at Luke 1:

So, it looks like it is obvious to me.

RESPONSE:

Aren’t you overlooking the scriptural passages in which “Lord” does not refer to God. Hint: Start with Lord Moses.

 

[NotWorthy]

RESPONSE:

Aren’t you overlooking the scriptural passages in which “Lord” does not refer to God. Hint: Start with Lord Moses.

No, JP. I’m looking at context. In Luke’s writings, I have patiently showed you that Luke repeatedly used “Lord” to mean “God”. Now, it would be grammatically incorrect for Luke to use “Lord/God” 10 times in a row, switch to “Lord/Master” without explaining the difference, and then instantly switch back to “Lord/God” another 6 times - all in the course of one chapter.

All Bible Scholars tell us that Luke had impressive handle on Greek writing. You don’t think a Holy Spirit inspired author like Luke would make such a grammatical faux pas?

 

[ready]

Pray well and stay well

I will.

 

[NotWorthy]

Oh, and just to continue. Chapter 2 of Luke continues with the frequent use of the word, “Lord”. And guess what? All 10 times, the context shows that Luke is using the term “Lord” to mean “God”.

 

[JP_Marat]

Oh, and just to continue. Chapter 2 of Luke continues with the frequent use of the word, “Lord”. And guess what? All 10 times, the context shows that Luke is using the term “Lord” to mean “God”.

RESPONSE:

Once again, like “son of God,” “Lord” is a term of respect.

Matt 22:44 "‘The Lord said to my lord, “Sit at my right hand until I place your enemies under your feet”’? (Two Gods speaking to each other? Hardly).

Luke 18:19 "And Jesus said to him: Why dost thou call me good? None is good but God alone. (Jesus is objecting to being given the same term as God)

 

[JP_Marat]

No, JP. I’m looking at context. In Luke’s writings, I have patiently showed you that Luke repeatedly used “Lord” to mean “God”. Now, it would be grammatically incorrect for Luke to use “Lord/God” 10 times in a row, switch to “Lord/Master” without explaining the difference, and then instantly switch back to “Lord/God” another 6 times - all in the course of one chapter.

All Bible Scholars tell us that Luke had impressive handle on Greek writing. You don’t think a Holy Spirit inspired author like Luke would make such a grammatical faux pas?

RESPONSE:

No. Luke used Greek correctly. He never claimed that Jesus was divine. Only John in 95-110 AD reports that. The Jesus as divine story started somewhere around 85 AD, and the the Christians were anathmatized from the Jewish synagogues as apostates (called Minim in Jewish literature.

Luke 18:19 “And Jesus said to him: Why dost thou call me good? None is good but God alone.” (Not Jesus. He says it himself)

 

[NotWorthy]

RESPONSE:

No. Luke used Greek correctly. He never claimed that Jesus was divine. Only John in 95-110 AD reports that. The Jesus as divine story started somewhere around 85 AD, and the the Christians were anathmatized from the Jewish synagogues as apostates (called Minim in Jewish literature.

Luke 18:19 “And Jesus said to him: Why dost thou call me good? None is good but God alone.” (Not Jesus. He says it himself)

Oh, now you’re just being funny. I show you where the context of “Lord” in Luke’s Gospel shows that he is talking about God over 25 times in the first two chapters. At least 2 or 3 of those times, Luke is referring to Jesus when he says, “Lord”, e.g. “And why is it that the Mother of my Lord should come to me”.

Now, in later chapters there may be a switch in the meaning, and one can look at the context to determine what Luke means. But its used too often in Luke 1 & 2 for the author to mean two different things without confusing the meaning of the text. And as you correctly stated,

Luke used Greek correctly.

Tonight, I’ll get with you on the Why do you call me Good scene, for Jesus makes it very clear that He is God in this scene.and Luke knows it.

But let me ask you something else for you to ponder until I get back on (I’m on a public PC right now and my on-line time is limited by the stares of those waiting for my PC).
According to the Psalms, “Who alone can tread the waters…”? And also, “Who alone can calm the seas”? Also, in Jeremiah, “Who does God say He will send to shepherd His people Israel”?

 

[NotWorthy]

To JP Marat? Why do you call yourself Catholic?

 

[JP_Marat]

To JP Marat? Why do you call yourself Catholic?

RESPONSE:

Becausee that’s what I am. However, I’m not a fundamentalist, traditionalist, or gullible Catholic.

I have put aside the things of a child (St. Paul)

 

[JP_Marat]

Oh, now you’re just being funny. I show you where the context of “Lord” in Luke’s Gospel shows that he is talking about God over 25 times in the first two chapters. At least 2 or 3 of those times, Luke is referring to Jesus when he says, “Lord”, e.g. “And why is it that the Mother of my Lord should come to me”.

Now, in later chapters there may be a switch in the meaning, and one can look at the context to determine what Luke means. But its used too often in Luke 1 & 2 for the author to mean two different things without confusing the meaning of the text. And as you correctly stated,

Tonight, I’ll get with you on the Why do you call me Good scene, for Jesus makes it very clear that He is God in this scene.and Luke knows it.

But let me ask you something else for you to ponder until I get back on (I’m on a public PC right now and my on-line time is limited by the stares of those waiting for my PC).
According to the Psalms, “Who alone can tread the waters…”? And also, “Who alone can calm the seas”? Also, in Jeremiah, “Who does God say He will send to shepherd His people Israel”?

RESPONSE:

“Lord” or “My Lord” is a title of respect, not a claim of divinity. Does the English “House of Lords” consider its members divine? Same thing.

 

[NotWorthy]

RESPONSE:

Becausee that’s what I am. However, I’m not a fundamentalist, traditionalist, or gullible Catholic.

I have put aside the things of a child (St. Paul)

No, my brother, you are deliberately misleading others into thinking you are what the rest of the world knows as Catholic.

Why don’t you put in your religiion “Catholic, just not fundamentalist, traditionalist or gullible Catholic”?