Can you please define “natural end of our faculties” and explain the methodology for determining one briefly?
I just finished writing a 60-page essay on Catholic moral theology, which is on the sparse side and leaves out lots of nuances. Probably several billion of words in the last 2,500 years have been written on the topic of right behavior from a natural law perspective. Most of these words are wrapped up in books that go on for several hundred pages at the minimum. To even begin explaining it I would need to introduce a number of philosophical ideas including teleology, classical essentialism, and the ontology of ethics.
So no, I’m not going to define it for you, because I have a job, other posts to comment on, lunch to eat, duties to attend to, etc. And also because forum space constraints would necessitate probably 10-20 posts. And because I have a natural aversion to doing other people’s homework for them. And finally because I am not the best expositor of anything and I know the temptation people have is (for some reason I will never understand) to assume that the best possible arguments for anything related to Catholicism can be found by uneducated laymen on the Internet, meaning I cannot do it justice and my attempt to do so will probably convince you there’s less to it than there is.
What I will happily do is give you some references for recommended reading. An excellent place to start is Edward Feser’s “Natural Law, Natural Rights, and Private Property,” an essay that applies natural law principles to the specific question of private property, but which includes a useful (but superficial) review of natural law principles. It’s
available online for free here. For a fuller treatment of those principles, you can consult two of Feser’s books:
The Last Superstition (better for a lay audience) or *Aquinas *(for a more academic audience).
David Oderberg’s “The Metaphysics of Natural Law” is basically an introduction to natural law on hard mode.
It would be hard to imagine a marriage where a couple only kissed immediately prior to intercourse, with small platonic pecks on the cheek being the only acceptable thing at other times (like that between relatives). I guess you might have to define what “very passionate” is as opposed to just passioniate.
No one’s saying it’s required that married couples kiss only before getting it on. Notice that I said “…in those cases in which sex is not OK, one should avoid very passionate kissing.” There are no such cases in marriage. Sex is always OK in marriage. The worst normative marital sex can be is imprudent, i.e., you shouldn’t be risking pregnancy because your wife’s health is fragile or because your finances might be unduly stressed by another child. Likewise, I’m saying passionate kissing, while it is at least potentially an offense against chastity outside of marriage, is conducive to chastity inside of marriage, and so can never itself be mortally sinful. The worst it can be is imprudent (i.e., why are you making out with your wife when you needed to leave for work 10 minutes ago?). So
maybe venially sinful at worst, depending on the circumstances.
You all are making this ludicrously more complicated than it needs to be, all in an effort, I suppose, to make it apparent how cumbersome and counterintuitive natural law is (or whatever). It’s not hard. Sex belongs to marriage, so have sex when you’re married and don’t when you aren’t. Passionate kissing is linked to sex, so kiss passionately when you’re married and don’t when you aren’t. When should married couples kiss passionately/have sex? When it’s prudent. “Prudent” is a fancy word meaning “use your best judgment.”