A
atheos_sum
Guest
Throughout these posts and in conversations with believers, atheistic reasoning is often objected to and dismissed as being a kind of “biased logic.”
What they have in mind is summed up by what someone told me yesterday. “Well, who made up the rules of logic? The atheists did and it’s no wonder then why it’s in their favor. You made up the rules and did not include God in them, so it’s not wonder he can’t win.”
Another standard objection is to put the focus on what the atheist has “faith” in, and to say that the atheist has “faith” in the laws of logic, or “faith” in reason. These are versions of the “primacy of faith” argument.
Now, either my “logic” is correct or incorrect, but I don’t think it can be “biased” unless, of course, I’m using incorrectly—which would bring us back to that second alternative, namely, “incorrect.” So the question I have is if we are actually using different methods of “logic.” But how can two different forms of logic coexist and be true? Also, isn’t it too much to presuppose God as a law of logic? I’m not quite sure how that is supposed to occur anyway. It would be like a jury presupposing the verdict before the trial.
Please keep your comments relevant to the topic.
What they have in mind is summed up by what someone told me yesterday. “Well, who made up the rules of logic? The atheists did and it’s no wonder then why it’s in their favor. You made up the rules and did not include God in them, so it’s not wonder he can’t win.”
Another standard objection is to put the focus on what the atheist has “faith” in, and to say that the atheist has “faith” in the laws of logic, or “faith” in reason. These are versions of the “primacy of faith” argument.
Now, either my “logic” is correct or incorrect, but I don’t think it can be “biased” unless, of course, I’m using incorrectly—which would bring us back to that second alternative, namely, “incorrect.” So the question I have is if we are actually using different methods of “logic.” But how can two different forms of logic coexist and be true? Also, isn’t it too much to presuppose God as a law of logic? I’m not quite sure how that is supposed to occur anyway. It would be like a jury presupposing the verdict before the trial.
Please keep your comments relevant to the topic.