The only logic that doesn’t flow here is yours BJC. You offer passages as proof text that are twisted out of the full context of the Bible and so you use them to support your case. The fact is that there are those who, by the garace of God have lived a sinless life and that one of those is the Blessed Virgin Mary.
Here’s my answer:
Please understand that I am not maintaining that Mary was perfect in the divine sense as Jesus was. I am saying that she is the first and best example of a Christian living a sinless life by the grace of God, and that this makes sense because that is precisely what we have been commanded to live by Our Lord Himself. She has no comparison to the Son of God, since her life was exemplary due to the work of Our Lord.
Why is this so theologically threatening? If we are called to a sinless life and holiness (and we all agree that we are) then this implicit concept from scripture is no more than a miracle of grace. The same miracle that we are called to and that we get a taste of for short periods of time when we are indeed able to live that life. perhaps all i’m saying that the Blessed virgin lived that life for a much greater duration than I have so far to date, as so set a good example of what I am called to and what I aspire to.
This takes absolutely nothing away from Christ in any way since it is sourced in Him and is a source of praise and glory to God from whom all the graces flow.
I believe that the non-Catholic contention that Mary could not have lived without sinning is the result of a serious lack of faith, since all the scriptures point to God’s command to live a holy life and avoid sin.
Leviticus 11 :44 For I am the Lord your God: be holy because I am holy.
Leviticus 11 :46 You shall be holy, because I am holy.
1 Peter 1 :16 Because it is written: You shall be holy, for I am holy.
Leviticus 20 :26 You shall be holy unto me, because I the Lord am holy, and I have separated you from other people, that you should be mine.
Leviticus 19 :2 Speak to all the congregation of the children of Israel, and thou shalt say to them: Be ye holy, because I the Lord your God am holy.
It makes no sense whatever for God to command us to do the impossible when the Word of God clearly says that “with God all things are possible”. Our holy lives (or lack thereof) are the direct result of our cooperation with the superabundant grace that is the gift of God. If Our Lady was indeed “full of grace” then isn’t it unbelief to say that she did not lead a sinless life? (Luke1:28 And the angel being come in, said unto her: Hail, full of grace, the Lord is with thee: blessed art thou among women.)
The New Testament nowhere gives us any example of Mary’s sin and calls Joseph and many others “righteous” because they obeyed God and cooperated with His grace in their lives. It is clearly not their own works that have merited their salvation, but their works are the result of their full cooperation with the God’s graces so that their salvation is a tremendous example of the overwhelming power of the grace that God gives us to do his will. (James 2 :18 But some man will say: Thou hast faith, and I have works: shew me thy faith without works; and I will shew thee, by works, my faith.
James 2 :20 But wilt thou know, O vain man, that faith without works is dead?
James 2 :22 Seest thou, that faith did co-operate with his works; and by works faith was made perfect?
James 2 :26 For even as the body without the spirit is dead; so also faith without works is dead.)
Is it not unbelief that causes us to fall? That unbelief is why we sin…we fail to believe that God’s grace is sufficient for us, then do not cooperate with that grace and as a result fall (flat on our spiritual faces).
Romans 3 :23 For all have sinned, and do need the glory of God.
Romans 5 :12 Wherefore as by one man sin entered into this world, and by sin death; and so death passed upon all men, in whom all have sinned.
Also…there is no distinction made between Original sin and actual sin…newborns are without actual sin until the age of reason…Adam and Eve were sinless prior to the fall. Jesus…we know was also sinless.
St. Paul’s letter to the Romans is making a de facto statement about man’s nature and unbelief in general. I don’t think it is a literal statement. This is not salvation by works at all, but our cooperation with the free gift of grace from God.
Pax vobiscum,
Here’s the link:
forums.catholic-questions.org/showthread.php?t=40979