K
kalebevans
Guest
I am reading The Gospel of Luke by Geldenhuys. He uses the British Revised Version of 1881. In Luke 1:28…“Hail thou art highly favoured” he claims is translated from the Vulgate, “Ave, gratia plena.” In the footnote, he states, "Roman Catholic expositors take this to mean that Mary is full of gifts of grace and accordingly appears between God and man as mediator to dispense gifts. It is however, clear from the context that Mary is merely the recipient of the favour of God in that He had chosen her to become the mother of Jesus.
Karl Keating, in his book, Catholicism and Fundamentalism, p 268, states ‘“Hail, full of grace, the Lord is with thee,” is the traditional rendering based on the Vulgate.’
If both are from the Vulgate, how can both men come up with different translations?
Karl Keating, in his book, Catholicism and Fundamentalism, p 268, states ‘“Hail, full of grace, the Lord is with thee,” is the traditional rendering based on the Vulgate.’
If both are from the Vulgate, how can both men come up with different translations?