B
BeatificVision
Guest
Does material sin (i.e. an act which is objectively wrong, but which the individual is not aware) constitute a moral evil?
On one hand, I would say that it does–it still offends God, it still deprives a human act of its moral goodness, but the individual is not culpable for the moral evil. On the other hand, I would say it does not–that because the person does not know the action is wrong and does not consciously choose the wrong, therefore there is no moral evil.
Although in a way academic, I think this distinction is important and material sin is not all that infrequent. Is anyone able to offer some insights, or point me towards some resources that could help me understand this better?
Thanks.
On one hand, I would say that it does–it still offends God, it still deprives a human act of its moral goodness, but the individual is not culpable for the moral evil. On the other hand, I would say it does not–that because the person does not know the action is wrong and does not consciously choose the wrong, therefore there is no moral evil.
Although in a way academic, I think this distinction is important and material sin is not all that infrequent. Is anyone able to offer some insights, or point me towards some resources that could help me understand this better?
Thanks.