T
thunderbolt94
Guest
Hey I had a question regarding the Eucharist, and the Catholic usage of wine.
I was reading a wikipedia article regarding Alcohol and Christianity and it said the following:
Although some abstentionists argue that wine in the Bible was almost always cut with water greatly decreasing its potency for inebriation,[13] there is general agreement that, while Old Testament wine was sometimes mixed with various spices to enhance its flavor and stimulating properties, it was not usually diluted with water,[65][66][67] and wine mixed with water is used as an Old Testament metaphor for corruption.[68] Among the Greeks, however, the cutting of wine with water was a common practice used to reduce potency and improve taste.[69] By the time of the writing of 2 Maccabees (first or 2nd century BC), the Greeks had conquered Palestine under Alexander the Great, and the Hellenistic custom had apparently found acceptance with the Jews[66][70] and was carried into Jewish rituals in New Testament times.[71][72]"
Then later in the article, it says this:
“The Apostolic Fathers make very little reference to wine,[75] but the earliest references from the Church Fathers make it clear that the early church used wine in their celebration of the Eucharist, often mixing it with water according to the prevailing custom.[76][77] The Didache, an early Christian treatise which is generally accepted to be from the late 1st century, instructs Christians to give a portion of their wine in support of a true prophet or, if they have no prophet resident with them, to the poor.[78]”
Here is the article:
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Christianity_and_alcohol#cite_note-67
My question is, if mixing water with wine is a symbol for corruption, does that mean that the use of water and wine in the Eucharist is invalid? I’m referring to a verse like Isaiah 1:22 that uses the water mixing with Wine metaphor.
If anyone can help me, I would greatly appreciate it.
I was reading a wikipedia article regarding Alcohol and Christianity and it said the following:
Although some abstentionists argue that wine in the Bible was almost always cut with water greatly decreasing its potency for inebriation,[13] there is general agreement that, while Old Testament wine was sometimes mixed with various spices to enhance its flavor and stimulating properties, it was not usually diluted with water,[65][66][67] and wine mixed with water is used as an Old Testament metaphor for corruption.[68] Among the Greeks, however, the cutting of wine with water was a common practice used to reduce potency and improve taste.[69] By the time of the writing of 2 Maccabees (first or 2nd century BC), the Greeks had conquered Palestine under Alexander the Great, and the Hellenistic custom had apparently found acceptance with the Jews[66][70] and was carried into Jewish rituals in New Testament times.[71][72]"
Then later in the article, it says this:
“The Apostolic Fathers make very little reference to wine,[75] but the earliest references from the Church Fathers make it clear that the early church used wine in their celebration of the Eucharist, often mixing it with water according to the prevailing custom.[76][77] The Didache, an early Christian treatise which is generally accepted to be from the late 1st century, instructs Christians to give a portion of their wine in support of a true prophet or, if they have no prophet resident with them, to the poor.[78]”
Here is the article:
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Christianity_and_alcohol#cite_note-67
My question is, if mixing water with wine is a symbol for corruption, does that mean that the use of water and wine in the Eucharist is invalid? I’m referring to a verse like Isaiah 1:22 that uses the water mixing with Wine metaphor.
If anyone can help me, I would greatly appreciate it.
I was going to post this, but am glad to see it covered. Simply and succintly put.