Is Morality Relative?

  • Thread starter Thread starter camerong
  • Start date Start date
Status
Not open for further replies.
C

camerong

Guest
Hellopeople and I (among a few others) began a conversation in another thread.

My basic assertion is that it is inconsistent to deny the existence of God while at the same time admitting the existence of morality. The idea goes like this: atheists (or at least materialist atheists) believe that there is nothing but matter. We have no souls, there are no higher powers, etc. We are a grouping of atoms, which, due to certain chemical or mechanical reactions, began to be able to move on our own. I assert that if that is true, and we are simply atoms, then it is meaningless to say that some movements or reactions of atoms are more morally right than others. Thus, larger ideas of morality are meaningless in a materialist perspective.

Hellopeople replied that atheists don’t actually believe in objective morality which is the same for every person. Instead, what we all consider to be morality is, in an atheist’s mind, not compliance with some larger law, but compliance with a social contract such as the golden rule, or making oneself feel good by helping others. As I understand hellopeople’s point, harming others is “immoral” to an atheist because it is unpleasant. (Please correct me if I have misread your assertions).

My question for the forum is this: is morality relative? Or can we reason the existence of an objective morality that applies equally to all people, regardless of their circumstances?

(Catholics obviously believe morality to be objective, i.e. from God. Can we still observe objective morality outside of biblical or Church sources? From arguments an atheist would accept?)
 
Morality is not relative it is absolute and tends towards a point source, God.

It is our application, and interpretation, that tends to be relative or rather imperfect, even in the Church, whose pastors are after all only human and all to often struggle to get the message across.
 
The bottom line in discussing morality is whether there are some acts that can be considered absolutely wrong in every sense of the word and without exception. Yes, there are. This doesn’t mean that some people won’t agree. But where people disagree, that is because of a disordered sense of right and wrong.

Homosexuals, for example, are proud of being homosexuals and will defend as morally right the insertion of one man’s penis into another man’s anus. There may be millions of people who think like this. That doesn’t mean that sexual morality is relative to the homosexual or the heterosexual. What it means is that some people are sinful and will lie to themselves and to others to cover their sinfulness. They can parade down 5th Avenue in all their perverse glory. It doesn’t change a thing. It can never change the sadness within.

The same with abortion. Kill the child in order to avoid the inconvenience. This is wrong. Those who defend it as right claim the right of women to own their own body. They do indeed have that right. But they don’t have the right to killl their own child. Their child’s body is not theirs to kill, any more than their own body is theirs to kill.

Every body and every soul belong first and foremost to God.
 
Hellopeople and I (among a few others) began a conversation in another thread.

My basic assertion is that it is inconsistent to deny the existence of God while at the same time admitting the existence of morality. The idea goes like this: atheists (or at least materialist atheists) believe that there is nothing but matter. We have no souls, there are no higher powers, etc. We are a grouping of atoms, which, due to certain chemical or mechanical reactions, began to be able to move on our own. I assert that if that is true, and we are simply atoms, then it is meaningless to say that some movements or reactions of atoms are more morally right than others. Thus, larger ideas of morality are meaningless in a materialist perspective.

Hellopeople replied that atheists don’t actually believe in objective morality which is the same for every person. Instead, what we all consider to be morality is, in an atheist’s mind, not compliance with some larger law, but compliance with a social contract such as the golden rule, or making oneself feel good by helping others. As I understand hellopeople’s point, harming others is “immoral” to an atheist because it is unpleasant. (Please correct me if I have misread your assertions).

My question for the forum is this: is morality relative? Or can we reason the existence of an objective morality that applies equally to all people, regardless of their circumstances?

(Catholics obviously believe morality to be objective, i.e. from God. Can we still observe objective morality outside of biblical or Church sources? From arguments an atheist would accept?)
I’ve discussed this meta-ethical problem with atheists many times. Rather than give you a plethora of positive arguments for the existence of objective morality, let me just tell you the default position I always employ to counter the moral relativist. I do it primarily by shifting the burden of proof onto them–after all, they are the ones making the claim, yes?

(1) Moral relativists will claim morality is subjective; and they will cite the phenomenon of disagreement among people as counting as evidence for this claim. Or, they will cite disagreement as **lack of evidence **for thinking objective moral values **do **exist and try to shift the burden of proof onto you. Don’t get caught in this trap. So…

(2) Press them on why the phenomenon of disagreement is supposed to even count as evidence at all that objective moral facts don’t exist, or, why disagreement is even supposed to **count **as *lack of evidence *for thinking objective moral facts do exist. For instance, if Bob falsely believes John Kerry is the president of the United States, and Bill falsely believes John McCain is the president of the United States, is their disagreement any guide or justification for our concluding that, therefore, there is **no fact **of the matter about **who is really **president of the United States after all? No. This is absurd. Even if people disagree on X, this disagreement does not entail there is no fact of the matter about X at all. Therefore, the phenomenon of disagreement is **not a very good reason **for thinking objective moral values might be non-objective. By doing this, you’ve just *defeated *their alleged “evidence” so that they consequently have no more firm ground to stand on for even defending their position anymore at all. Haha!

(3) Show them all the instances of where people DO agree on objective moral principles. In fact, quite arguably, there is more widespread **agreement ** rather than **disgareement ** on which objective moral values are the correct ones. So the relativist can’t suppress THIS evidence without being intellectually dishonest with his own biasedly chosen instances of disagreement.

(4) Don’t let them tell you that just because people will apply a moral principle differently in different contexts that there is therefore little or no reason, for instance, for thinking Justice is objective. They are confusing moral absolutism which says one moral principle is non-negotiable across all circumstances and contexts with moral objectivism which says most or all moral principles are overridable by other moral principles but each moral principle is still **objectively binding **on each and every person.

For instance, “thou shalt not lie” can be an overridable moral principle in a circumstance where the Nazi Gestapo are interrogating you if your are giving asylum to a Jewish Family with three babies to whom they are going to gas, torture, and perform digusting medical experiments. It is better to lie to the Nazis then tell them the truth. Why? Because the other moral principle “Always save as many lives as possible when the act is of very little cost to yourself” overrides the moral principle “always tell the truth.” This overridability of one moral principle by another is not evidence that objective morality doesn’t exist. Quite the contrary. When you take polls about what one ought to do in a given circumstance such as the Nazi Gestapo example above, there is almost universal and unanimous agreement. So it is **more likely **that objective moral values exist than do not exist.

(5) Notice, too, that all of our moral principles will be given different intepretations by people in different societies, but the moral principles themselves never change. The moral principle found in Justice, for instance, will simply have many different instances of it expressed in different contexts and by different socieities. For instance, Justice might be construed as “One ought to always pay one’s debts” by one rather materialistic society, and construed as “One ought to always punish a criminal proporitional to his crime” in another society. But these are *not *contradictory notions of Justice. They are merely different instances OF it.

These are the strategic suggestions I find very helpful:)

And to help guide you, here are some moral principles almost all societies and cultures agree on (and for those who don’t agree–the reason is that they are wrong, not because morality is subjective):

(1) Do not kill innocent people.
(2) Do not cause unneccesary pain or suffering.
(3) Do not cheat or steal.
(4) Keep your promise and honor your contracts.
(5) Do not deprive another person of his or her freedom.
(6) Do justice, treating equals equally and unequals unequally.
(7) Help other people, at least when the cost to oneself is minimal./
(8) Reciprocate (show gratitude for services rendered).
(9) Obey just laws.
 
(1) Moral relativists will claim morality is subjective; and they will cite the phenomenon of disagreement among people as counting as evidence for this claim. Or, they will cite disagreement as **lack of evidence **for thinking objective moral values **do **exist and try to shift the burden of proof onto you. Don’t get caught in this trap. So…

(2) Press them on why the phenomenon of disagreement is supposed to even count as evidence at all that objective moral facts don’t exist, or, why disagreement is even supposed to **count **as *lack of evidence *for thinking objective moral facts do exist. For instance, if Bob falsely believes John Kerry is the president of the United States, and Bill falsely believes John McCain is the president of the United States, is their disagreement any guide or justification for our concluding that, therefore, there is **no fact **of the matter about **who is really **president of the United States after all? No. This is absurd. Even if people disagree on X, this disagreement does not entail there is no fact of the matter about X at all. Therefore, the phenomenon of disagreement is **not a very good reason **for thinking objective moral values might be non-objective. By doing this, you’ve just *defeated *their alleged “evidence” so that they consequently have no more firm ground to stand on for even defending their position anymore. Haha!

(3) Show them all the instances of where people DO agree on objective moral principles. In fact, quite arguably, there is more widespread **agreement ** rather than **disgareement ** on which objective moral values are the correct ones. So the relativist can’t suppress THIS evidence without being intellectually dishonest with his own biasedly chosen instances of disagreement.
Your analogy of saying john kerry is the president is inherently flawed. In that case, that person is wrong and you can PROVE that it is wrong. You can’t prove that using a condom is wrong without bringing God into the equation.

OK, basically, in terms of morality…it is subjective. You can’t deny this. You can’t prove that something is right or wrong, it is only opinion. The only way that you can say that there is ONE set of morals that is right is if there is a God and he says so. But, even if this is true, his set of morals is not completely known to us and is speculation anyway. So either way, morality basically is subjective.
 
Homosexuals, for example, are proud of being homosexuals and will defend as morally right the insertion of one man’s penis into another man’s anus. There may be millions of people who think like this. That doesn’t mean that sexual morality is relative to the homosexual or the heterosexual. What it means is that some people are sinful and will lie to themselves and to others to cover their sinfulness. They can parade down 5th Avenue in all their perverse glory. It doesn’t change a thing. It can never change the sadness within.
If you don’t believe in God, or a God that does not approve of homosexuality, then there is nothing inherently wrong with it. It isn’t like rape or something where you are intentionally hurting someone for your own pleasure and benefit (which is pretty much universally looked down upon). Homosexuality is pretty much only believed to be immoral by people of God…same thing goes for the use of condoms, and to some extent pre marital sex. So you have to think to yourself “If it is only people that believe in God that think something is wrong, and pretty much every other moral philosopher that doesn’t believe in God doesn’t think it is wrong…maybe we are the ones who are wrong.”

In my opinion, if your only case for why something is wrong is “because God says so” or “because the Bible says so” then I cannot accept it as wrong.
 
Your analogy of saying john kerry is the president is inherently flawed. In that case, that person is wrong and you can PROVE that it is wrong. You can’t prove that using a condom is wrong without bringing God into the equation.
You missed the point altogether. The example is designed to show that the phenomenon of mere disagreement is not evidencefor thinking there is no objective fact of the matter. Nor is the *lack *of evidence about who is right or wrong *even a good reason *for thinking there is not a objective fact of the matter either. So it simply doesn’t matter how we go about empirically determining who is right and who is wrong. All that matters is that lack of evidence about which moral principle is the correct one, is not evidence for thinking there are no objective moral principles at all, just as **lack **of evidence about whether Bill’s or Bob’s belief is the actual correct statement of fact does **not **logically entail that **no one **is the president of the United States at all. Do you really believe that it does?

In fact, all of us could be wrong about the correct moral principles. But that doesn’t imply that they don’t exist, or that lack of evidence for them is justification for thinking they don’t exist at all. Therefore, your argument is an appeal to ignorance. So the burden of proof is still on you. You need to defend the implicit principle to which you are appealing.

(P) If two individuals A and B disagree on moral principle X, then we have little or no reason for thinking a moral principle X exists at all.

I simply do not see any reason for thinking this is true. Defend it please.
OK, basically, in terms of morality…it is subjective. You can’t deny this. You can’t prove that something is right or wrong, it is only opinion.
Argument please? This will consist of you providing premises and deducing a conclusion. I’m not convinced.
The only way that you can say that there is ONE set of morals that is right is if there is a God and he says so. But, even if this is true, his set of morals is not completely known to us and is speculation anyway. So either way, morality basically is subjective.
So far your argument is this:

(a) We can say there is an objective morality if and only if God says so.
(b) God’s moral principles are unknown.
(c) Therefore, morality is subjective.

This is invalid. Try again.
 
If you don’t believe in God, or a God that does not approve of homosexuality, then there is nothing inherently wrong with it.
lol. This is just as implausible as,

“If you do not believe that the Earth revolves around the sun, then the earth does not revolve around the sun.”
Homosexuality is pretty much only believed to be immoral by people of God…same thing goes for the use of condoms, and to some extent pre marital sex. So you have to think to yourself “If it is only people that believe in God that think something is wrong, and pretty much every other moral philosopher that doesn’t believe in God doesn’t think it is wrong…maybe we are the ones who are wrong.”
Neither the consensus nor the lack of consensus is any epistemic guide to the correct moral principles, just as agreement that the earth is flat, or the disagreement on which string theory is true is no epistemic guide to which theory is the correct one.
In my opinion, if your only case for why something is wrong is “because God says so” or “because the Bible says so” then I cannot accept it as wrong.
Everyone is certainly entitled to holding his or her own unjustified opinions. But no one is going to take you seriously if you can’t defend them
 
hellopeople

Homosexuality is pretty much only believed to be immoral by people of God…

Not necessarily. I know atheists who also consider it wrong, not because it goes against the will of God, but against the natural order of things (the penis is not designed for the anus … it is designed for the vagina). Then again, there are homosexuals who become atheists, lying to themselves that there is no God, so that they can make their own morality instead of submitting to God’s.

Also, the incidence of death from HIV contracted by homosexual activity between men suggests again that this preference comes from the Devil (whom Christ referred to as a liar and a murderer), rather than from God.
 
The only way that you can say that there is ONE set of morals that is right is if there is a God and he says so. But, even if this is true, his set of morals is not completely known to us and is speculation anyway. So either way, morality basically is subjective.
Catholics would agree that we cannot fully understand the morality of God. In fact, I see this a necessarily true, as any attribute of God cannot be understood by humans. But that does not mean it is speculation. Speculation means guesses without proper basis of evidence. If there is a God and He has a set of morals, we certainly have evidence as to what those morals are–our own inclinations, our own reason, writings that claim to be holy, etc. That evidence will not convince everyone–hence the disagreements among Christians or between different types of theists–but it is evidence nonetheless that takes arguments as to God’s morality out of the realm of speculation.

I agree that if we had no evidence of the morality of God, morality would be practically subjective. But we have quite a bit of evidence. And, in fact, most of that evidence would agree about the broad strokes of the morality of God, leaving only relatively small questions.
 
hellopeople

Homosexuality is pretty much only believed to be immoral by people of God…

Not necessarily. I know atheists who also consider it wrong, not because it goes against the will of God, but against the natural order of things (the penis is not designed for the anus … it is designed for the vagina). Then again, there are homosexuals who become atheists, lying to themselves that there is no God, so that they can make their own morality instead of submitting to God’s.
(Let us be precise, by saying that Catholicism does not see homosexuality as immoral, but homosexual sex. The Church has never asserted that simply being a homosexual is a sin; indeed the Catechism specifically denies such an idea.)

It really doesn’t matter whether everyone believes something is wrong or not. I suspect that, especially if Catholics and conservatives stopped fighting it, the entire would would come to accept homosexual sex as acceptable. Does that in any way make it more likely that homosexual sex is acceptable under an objective morality? Of course not.
 
hellopeople

Homosexuality is pretty much only believed to be immoral by people of God…

Not necessarily. I know atheists who also consider it wrong, not because it goes against the will of God, but against the natural order of things (the penis is not designed for the anus … it is designed for the vagina). Then again, there are homosexuals who become atheists, lying to themselves that there is no God, so that they can make their own morality instead of submitting to God’s.

Also, the incidence of death from HIV contracted by homosexual activity between men suggests again that this preference comes from the Devil (whom Christ referred to as a liar and a murderer), rather than from God.
The devil has aids?
 
You missed the point altogether. The example is designed to show that the phenomenon of mere disagreement is not evidencefor thinking there is no objective fact of the matter. Nor is the *lack *of evidence about who is right or wrong *even a good reason *for thinking there is not a objective fact of the matter either. So it simply doesn’t matter how we go about empirically determining who is right and who is wrong. All that matters is that lack of evidence about which moral principle is the correct one, is not evidence for thinking there are no objective moral principles at all, just as **lack **of evidence about whether Bill’s or Bob’s belief is the actual correct statement of fact does **not **logically entail that **no one **is the president of the United States at all. Do you really believe that it does?

In fact, all of us could be wrong about the correct moral principles. But that doesn’t imply that they don’t exist, or that lack of evidence for them is justification for thinking they don’t exist at all. Therefore, your argument is an appeal to ignorance. So the burden of proof is still on you. You need to defend the implicit principle to which you are appealing.

(P) If two individuals A and B disagree on moral principle X, then we have little or no reason for thinking a moral principle X exists at all.

I simply do not see any reason for thinking this is true. Defend it please.

Argument please? This will consist of you providing premises and deducing a conclusion. I’m not convinced.

So far your argument is this:

(a) We can say there is an objective morality if and only if God says so.
(b) God’s moral principles are unknown.
(c) Therefore, morality is subjective.

This is invalid. Try again.
First of all, YOU are the one trying to prove something here. You are trying to prove that an objective morality exists.

The way I see it is that maybe an objective morality does exist. This can only be true if God exists. But, since there is no way of knowing which set of morals is condoned by God, we will constantly be arguing about anyway…so it might as well be subjective.

To be honest, you are going to have to prove that God exists to show that there is an objective set of morality.
 
Fayle

*Lesbians have the lowest rates of HIV. God must like lesbian sex *

Actually, celibates have the lowest rate of AIDS! 👍 😃

God must prefer celibates to lesbians. 😛
 
First of all, YOU are the one trying to prove something here. You are trying to prove that an objective morality exists.
No. I am showing there is **no sufficient reason **for thinking it doesn’t exist. Those are two different tasks. What I am doing is effectively switching the burden of proof onto you for showing objective morality doesn’t exist.
The way I see it is that maybe an objective morality does exist. This can only be true if God exists. But, since there is no way of knowing which set of morals is condoned by God, we will constantly be arguing about anyway…so it might as well be subjective.
lol…then you might as well say,

“Since there is no way if knowing which scientific theory is the correct theory of the universe, there might as well be no fact of the matter about the universe for any theory to describe.”
To be honest, you are going to have to prove that God exists to show that there is an objective set of morality.
Oh yeah? How so?
 
I took the liberty to edit your text. I am not trying to be condescending, only performing corrections that need to be done.🙂
I agree that if we had no evidence of the morality of God, -]morality would be practically subjective /-] ****** But we have quite a bit of evidence. And, in fact, most of that evidence would agree about the broad strokes of the morality of God, leaving only relatively small questions.
 
hellopeople

To be honest, you are going to have to prove that God exists to show that there is an objective set of morality.

Ayn Rand was an atheist. She also subscribed to objective morality.

Here is the first sentence of her essay “The Cult of Moral Grayness.”

"One of the most eloquent symptoms of the moral bankruptcy of today’s culture, is a certain fashionable attitutde toward moral issues, best summarized as: “There are no blacks and whites, there are only grays… If there are no black and white, there can be no gray – since gray is merely a mixture of the two.”

Rand’s view of morality is close to the Catholic view concewrning the natural law. We are all endowed with a natural sense of right and wrong. However, we can trick ourselves or be tricked out of that natural sense. But conscience always comes home to roost sooner or later.
 
And I took the liberty of correcting yours… 🙂
I took the liberty to edit your text. I am not trying to be -]condescending/-] *[Condescending means a patronizing descent from superiority. Condescending would be if you explained my alleged error in elementary language, implying that I lack the ability to comprehend subtle distinctions in language. Instead, I believe you meant to use the word pedantic, in that it might appear on first blush that you are overemphasizing minor differences in language, but in fact you are pointing out an important distinction–which is why you use the disclaimer to, in essence, beg the reader to “bear with you” until you have fully explained your assertion.]
, only performing corrections that need to be done.🙂

(just kidding, of course). My forte is English, not philosophy 🙂

But your point is well-taken. I agree.
 
And I took the liberty of correcting yours… 🙂

(just kidding, of course). My forte is English, not philosophy 🙂

But your point is well-taken. I agree.
Ok, now that IS pedantic! sheesh!😃

Actually, I think using “condescending” IS more appropriate because I was criticizing the very logic of the statement. The suggestion was that by performing that very correction “I am not implying I am stooping down to a level I think you are at because I don’t think you are actually at that level.” So I am not so sure you are correct about my lack of intentions here. Sorry, I think your edit was incorrect…🙂
 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Back
Top