There is no ‘assumption of loss’ here. It stopped. Revelation would result in more scripture being written; isn’t that what scripture IS, after all–the recording of revelation by those who receive it? So if there was no more scripture being written, then either there was no more revelation being received–or nobody thought it was important enough to write down. Either one seems problematic to me.
Where the argument of “continuing revelation” ending is circular (as a “proof” of apostasy) is that first you must establish that “continuing revelation” occurs, was meant to occur after Christ, and means (is defined as) what you think it means. Fact is, I have seen no other non-Smithian groups that agree with any of those three points as Smithians believe them. It is a Smithian innovation backed up in only in Smithian works–which, if they must rely on themselves to demonstrate it, rely on circular reasoning.
I call it circular because you cannot presume those three premises about “continuing revelation” and use them as evidence for any sort of apostasy. You must first prove your premises.
My argument isn’t that it is necessary…my argument is that continuing revelation was going on after the death and resurrection of Jesus; it’s why we have scripture telling us about Him at all. My question is…since there was continued revelation, then…why did it STOP?
I don’t accept your premise. Did even the Apostles have to receive revelation after Christ in order to tell people about his life (in the Gospels, for instance) or write letters about his teachings? No, those things were revealed to them by Christ when he lived with them.
This gets into the nature of revelation however. You see, the reason that Catholics say that revelation was complete with Christ is because of the logical absolute necessity of that fact. It’s really pretty simple. The infinite God incarnates as one of us, fully divine, fully human. Humans experience each other on an equal level. Thus the entirety of God was revealed in the incarnation of Christ; He was fully present in Christ. No further revelation is possible after this has happened.
God took it a step further, however. He Divinely Instituted the Church as Christ’s own Body and ensouled it with the Holy Spirit. So the Church itself contains the completeness of the infinite God. All of infinite revelation has thus been revealed to the level of man.
Now, of course, finite man cannot comprehend the entirety of God, and so we humans within the Church still must grow in our understanding of the Truth. But that is why Christ is the cornerstone and Head, why he sent the Spirit to guide us into all truth, remembrance of all things (“remembrance” by the way, confirms that “all things” were revealed–it’s done, no more necessary). He does this through the apostolic office and the hearts of the faithful (sensis fidelis, Tradition). All has been revealed (past tense); all that remains is for us to be guided into full understanding (which will take forever).
Where in the scriptures, anywhere at all, does it say that such revelation as produced scripture would stop?
I referred to a couple of places above, in paraphrase. I could look up the verses, but hopefully you will recognize the references.
Let me ask you, where in the Scriptures does it say that public revelation will continue at all times through all ages? Where does it state who was “Prophet”–who did Christ appoint as first “Prophet?” And, tangentially, where did prophets (“scorned in their own lands,” as Smithians are quick to apply to JS) lead the Church continually as head?
If there is no such mention, no such promise–then why did it? WE claim that it stopped, not because it was supposed to, but rather because people no longer listened to it or wrote it down. The apostasy.
Here I will note the interesting similarity yet difference between the LDS “Prophet” and the popes. Your prophets occasionally write new sections of the D&C, which some of you regard as highly as Scripture, some regard in a lesser fashion as guidance for the times (not for all times, like true Scripture).
The popes issue encyclicals (much like the letters of the NT), and the ecumenical councils also produce documents. We hold those documents as very weighty indeed; some of them (if they meet the conditions) are infallible, like Scripture. This is the Spirit guiding us into all Truth; it really ought to satisfy your proper need to see God continuing at work among His Church.
I find it interesting, however, that I often hear Smithians attacking Catholics for the “arrogance” or “idolatry” (among other things) of daring to believe that the Church has, under special conditions, sufficient guidance from the Spirit to prevent it from erring in matters of faith and morals (which is what infallibility means). Note that infallibility does not ensure the best possible teachings, and is often considered slightly less than “divinely inspired” (as that latter would attest to not just no error, but well-taught). It is similar to Scripture in this sense, but also dissimilar.
Yet the Smithian prophets presume to say that they speak as if God dictates through them (which He rarely, if ever, did in the OT or NT). This is a more arrogant claim by far, and one depending much more on a single individual than the method of direction the Spirit actually uses in the Church.