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Neofight
Guest
A couple evenings ago there was a discussion on EWTN Radio about the Announciation. The apologetic hosting, in the discussion about the Blessed Virgin being born without sin, hence Gabriel’s salutation, “Hail Mary, full of grace,” mentioned that several translations rather than “full of grace” say “favored one” or words of that effect.
He went noted that the Ignatius, a good Catholic Bible, used “full of grace”, but we should be leary of those saying “favored one” because they were “protestantized”.
But my NABRE, the Vatican and the USCCB website all use the NABRE translation in Luke 1:23 of “favored one”.
Was the apologetic speaking out of turn? Is the Vatican and USCCB wrong?
I see no conflict, and certainly don’t see the authorized NABRE as anything other than thoroughly Cathlic.
Should I talk to my pastor to have our parish change what is used in the Lectionary?
Many Blessings
He went noted that the Ignatius, a good Catholic Bible, used “full of grace”, but we should be leary of those saying “favored one” because they were “protestantized”.
But my NABRE, the Vatican and the USCCB website all use the NABRE translation in Luke 1:23 of “favored one”.
Was the apologetic speaking out of turn? Is the Vatican and USCCB wrong?
I see no conflict, and certainly don’t see the authorized NABRE as anything other than thoroughly Cathlic.
Should I talk to my pastor to have our parish change what is used in the Lectionary?
Many Blessings