Is philosophy necessary or useful for materialists?

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Here’s something I stole from C.S. Lewis (again):

"I have known only one person in my life who claimed to have seen a ghost. It was a woman; and the interesting thing is that she disbelieved in the immortality of the soul before seeing the ghost and still disbelieves after having seen it. She thinks it was a hallucination. In other words, seeing is not believing. This is the first thing to get clear in talking about miracles. Whatever experiences we may have, we shall not regard them as miraculous if we already hold a philosophy which excludes the supernatural. Any event which is claimed as a miracle is, in the last resort, an experience received from the senses; and the senses are not infallible. We can always say we have been the victims of an illusion; if we disbelieve in the supernatural this is what we shall always say. Hence, whether miracles have really ceased or not, they would certainly appear to cease in Western Europe as materialism became the popular creed. For let us make no mistake. If the end of the world appeared in all the literal trappings of the Apocalypse, if the modern materialist saw with his own eyes the heavens rolled up and the great white throne appearing, if he had the sensation of being himself hurled into the Lake of Fire, he would continue forever, in that lake itself, to regard his experience as an illusion and to find the explanation of it in psychoanalysis, or cerebral pathology. Experience by itself proves nothing. If a man doubts whether he is dreaming or waking, no experiment can solve his doubt, since every experiment may itself be part of the dream. Experience proves this, or that, or nothing, according to the preconceptions we bring to it.
Lewis is wrong. I highlighted the error. The senses always convey the information, however we can interpret the signals incorretly. To say that the senses may “fool” us does lead to nighmare: “if the senses would not provide the correct information - how would we know”?

Actually, this is only true to the one sense, which is truly a “distant” sense - vision. No one can incorrectly interpret the sounds; no one can imagine that the blaring of a siren is “really” just a quiet sound of a violin. Or to mistakenly imagine that the stench of rotting carcass is “really” the smell of a rose. The touch and the taste are even more “close-up” senses. You cannot misinterpret a beating and imagine that it is “really” a loving caress.

The “vision” can be incorrectly interpreted, but that is all.

So experience is the final arbiter. That lady did not see a ghost, she saw something she interpreted to be a ghost. Not to mention, that if a “ghost” is visible, then it is part of the physical universe, subject to the “scientific” method.
I disagree with your perception of my view.
I did not mean it as a “personal” you…
Allow me to admit: everything that is physical IS subject to the scientific method.
Well, then, since the interface is part of the physical world, it would be subject to the scientific method.
I am not certain you understand my view of what would constitute a “miracle”. To me it appears you assume that I believe some natural, material thing would suddenly- spontaneously- cease acting according to its nature. Possibly calling for an expansion of the laws we thought we knew concerning it.
That is the only proper way to approach it. The alternative: “it cannot be caused by any natural phenomenon” presupposes omniscience.
My view is otherwise: simply that if there were some unimaginable force or thing outside the material universe (not improbably Aristotle’s “Unmoved Mover”) that was able to interfere with the workings of Nature- I do not see how science could be expected to tell us much about it. Nor do I think there could be a controlled experiment to detect the presence of that thing. Like we established earlier- your methodology precludes you from discovering anything but scientific facts.
Again, we play the percentages. To imagine that we do not know everything about the physical universe is just the admission of our lack of omniscience. It is much more probable that we do not know the actual cause, then to assume that an unknown and unknowable entity, employing some unimaginable means made it somehow happen. This would be sheer “magic”, unknowable forever. And since - insofar - all those “unexplained” miraculous events all turned out to be natural phenomena, we play the percenatges.
My question: Would your methodology also leave out things like history, or the idea that I would do better NOT to be a cruel and treacherous person?
History is not part of the reality. The past does not exist. The other part can be explained very simply and rationally. It is to your long-term benefit to adhere to the principle of reciprocity. It can be proven by the branch of mathematics called “game theory”.
 
That lady did not see a ghost, she saw something she interpreted to be a ghost.
Not to quibble, but that was precisely the opposite of her interpretation. She interpreted the phenomenon as any good materialist would.

You did read that all the way through, right?
 
Tyrion

History is not part of the reality. The past does not exist.

So biological evolution is the science of nothingness? :confused:😃
 
Tyrion

History is not part of the reality. The past does not exist.

So biological evolution is the science of nothingness? :confused:😃
I guess that would be the logical conclusion.

If I cannot verify it via the scientific method… if NO ONE can go back and verify it via that method or any other…
 
Well, then, since the interface is part of the physical world, it would be subject to the scientific method.
I’m sure it would be- if I’d mentioned a static, scientically verifiable interface between two realms. Like a hole in the sky through which one could observe angels. I guess the Russians who couldn’t find God in the sky simply weren’t looking hard enough.
 
The “scientific” “proof” for why human beings ought not be cruel and treacherous:
It is to your long-term benefit to adhere to the principle of reciprocity. It can be proven by the branch of mathematics called “game theory”.
What if I quoted some study to you which clearly demonstrated how being cruel and treacherous is actually advantageous to me? (if not my friends.)

Would you accept Cruelty and Treachery as things to aspire to?

How about Cowardice? What if I want to save my own skin? Is there any scientific principle which would make me want to do something that was right, even if I was afraid of what would happen to me?
 
What scientific principle would explain to me why Beethoven’s “Moonlight Sonata” is music of incredible sadness?

What scientific principle would explain to me why “Amazing Grace” brings tears to my eyes?
 
This has already been covered. There is no “truth” to subjective opinions. The poem has no objectibe “meaning”. It has a subjective meaning of the author, and the subjective meaning of the readers - and those do not necessariky collide… Jokes, or pieces of art are also subjective.
Tyrion, in one fell swoop, you’ve done away with half the campus (the humanities).

Surely, you would agree that we can “fail” to understand a work of literature or art.

And, of course, we can completely miss the point of a joke.

And also the point of a posting.

I remember that you patiently have had to clarify your meaning on this and other postings when some of us have “missed your point”.

If what you’re saying is true, it would make every conversation impossible.

But then again, I may have missed your point.

But if I missed your point, that proves my point. 🙂
 
. . . .
As I said, you can believe whatever you want to. But I must reflect on your historical perspective. You are correct that the “first” view of reality was somewhat “theistic”. (Not in the modern montheistic sense of word, of course.) Naturally, since people lacked all the knowledge about nature, so they tried the simplest “explanation” : it is all caused by some “gods”. These “gods” were the “gods of the gaps”. As knowledge accumulated, the sphere of the gaps kept decreasing, and today it almost disappeared. Some “stubborn” apologists keep trying to place the working of the brain, called: mind into the non-physical realm… but pretty much that is it. Why should you abandon your stance? Because it is foolish to keep betting on a horse, which kept losing in every race it was entered. But, hey, it is you life, do whatever you want.
The god-of-the-gaps theory to explain the fundamental source religious experience is not by a long shot the consensus of historians of religion–it is, in fact, generally rejected.
Here’s the usual (and mistaken) portrayal of religion as a system of explanation by primitive humans. Caveman: “Ugh! thunderstorm scary. Why it happen? Caused by . . . uh . . . uh . . . uh . . . ahh!, storm god. Feel better now. I go placate storm god.”

I repeat: historians of religion reject this explanation. It’s time to give up this tired old caricature.

What historians of religion (e.g., M. Eliade, R. Otto, G. van der Leeuw, et al.) stress from their research that religious experience is first and foremost of the holy/sacred/supernatural supreme reality that is encountered in a kind of perception. The domain is not primarily one of a physical or metaphysical explanation, but of an encounter and relationship.

The horse you are speaking about isn’t even in the race. You haven’t at all shown me why one is rationally compelled to abandon theism and adopt physicalism. And honestly, if this is your real objection, you’ve got nothing to worry about.

Also even if the caricature of religion you offer were true–and it emphatically is not–your thinking in this objection skates dangerously to this: People used to think storks brought babies, but we now know the real way they come into the world and it is not by storks. Therefore, storks do not exist.

So then if you were saying: You theists down through time have always believed that there are immaterial features to reality. However, we physicalists have come to realize at this point in history, if you think carefully about it, that reality is only physical because theism is a faulty and primitive system of scientific explanation filling in the gaps with God. If saying this is your concern, you have no worries.
Well, I did right above. To repeat: “whatever you theists attributed to those ‘gods’… after a careful scrutiny, all turned to be natural phenomena”.
Lame, discredited theory of religion.
I did [justify physicalism], right above.
Not even close.
Sure, go ahead. When I said: “your hands are free”, I meant exactly that. Maybe it was not explicit enough. Sorry.
OK, cool. Glad to hear it. Back at you shortly below.
 
The claims about the “non-physical” do not belong (supposedly!) into this category. They are supposed to have an objective truth value associated with them. The question is STILL the same - how do you decide which one is true and which one is false?
Are there “persons”?

And what about the truth or falsity of claims about “persons”, e.g., as in judicial proceedings?

Is the “scientific” method applicable here?
 
Are there “persons”?

And what about the truth or falsity of claims about “persons”, e.g., as in judicial proceedings?

Is the “scientific” method applicable here?
Damn.

No, I guess it’s not, and therefore our entire legal system is based upon myth and will shortly be done away with.

This is only reasonable. Because, now that I think about it, I cannot find “justice” under my microscope either.
 
What entities qualify as physical? Those that can sensed? Can “persons” be sensed? Can “motives” be sensed? Can “meanings” be sensed? Or, with respect to the aforementioned judicial proceedings, can “guilt” be sensed?

How do you determine what’s true and what’s false with respect to these “items”?
 
Thank you for contributing. I plan on showing this discussion to my friends, who I previously mentioned are atheists who insist that philosophy is meaningful and relevant despite nobody telling me why besides that they like it. Specifically, nobody is able to tell me what questions it definitively answers.

So, assuming that the some God-less occurrence created the universe and that there is no God. Everything is material (theists need to pretend here), what questions would philosophy (defined as the stuff one learns from books in the philosophy section of Barnes and Noble) answer that science couldn’t?

I maintain that it would be irrelevant to reality and that anything would be answered by science. For example, why do people like poetry? Well, people have developed emotions and certain memories or thoughts trigger a chemical reaction people call “pleasure.”

Does anybody, arguing as an atheist, disagree with that?
 
Can I rationally defend the materialist position?

“If the whole universe has no meaning, we should never have found out that it has no meaning: just as, if there were no light in the universe and therefore no creatures with eyes, we should never know it was dark. *Dark *would be without meaning.”

I don’t know how to answer this. (Same guy, same book I mentioned earlier.)
 
“If the whole universe has no meaning, we should never have found out that it has no meaning:…]”
Personally I don’t see the connection between the condition “the whole universe has no meaning” and the conclusion “we should have never…”, not do I see how that conclusion was reached.
 
If one other person agrees with you that this is not obvious, then I will try to break it down.

And if I further discover that this does NOT actually follow, I will humbly admit my error.
 
Tyrion, in one fell swoop, you’ve done away with half the campus (the humanities).
What is the problem? You cannot argue about the veracity of such utterances as: “Wagner’s Niebelung Ring is the best piece of music there is”. To some people it is, to others it is unbearably long and boring. For some people “vanilla flavored ice-cream” is better than “chocolate flavored” - is there a way to decide “who is right”? The Latin proverb says correctly: “De gustibus non est disputandum” (you cannot argue about tastes).
If what you’re saying is true, it would make every conversation impossible.
Exaggerating again. “Every conversation”? Is there nothing which is NOT “black and white”? Are there no grey scales?
 
The god-of-the-gaps theory to explain the fundamental source religious experience is not by a long shot the consensus of historians of religion–it is, in fact, generally rejected.
Here’s the usual (and mistaken) portrayal of religion as a system of explanation by primitive humans. Caveman: “Ugh! thunderstorm scary. Why it happen? Caused by . . . uh . . . uh . . . uh . . . ahh!, storm god. Feel better now. I go placate storm god.”
Actually, this is a real caricature. The explanation is not that simple, of course. There are other factors that need to be taken into consideration. The best speculation I ever heard was this: "People have been dreaming. They dreamt about their deceased loved ones. They had no idea that the dreams were just random firings of their neurons. To them the most rational explanation was, that their loved ones did not fully die, that there is something about them which still lives. As such they came up with the idea of some soul. Etc… ". But, what is the point? Neither speculation can be proven. Who cares what happened a 100 thousand years ago? What relevance does it have?
I repeat: historians of religion reject this explanation.
So they offer their speculation instead of another one. Neither party can go back and observe the flow of events. The real problem is that “history” will not help your case. The “supernatural” is supposed to be “alive and well” today. But it points out the real problem: “when there is ONLY speculation (aka religion) then how can one decide if that speculation corresponds to reality, or not?” How do you know that the belief in Zeus and Jupiter and the Egyptian Sun God… etc… are all wrong, but your belief is God is right? What is your epistemology you employ to decide this question? What is your evidence?
The horse you are speaking about isn’t even in the race.
Really? First, you never offered a competing method to the physicalist approach, and yet you denigrate it. Anything and everything we achieved until today is the result of the physicalist approach. The computer you use did not come from “prayer”, it is the result of the scientific method. Where is your “horse”?
So then if you were saying: You theists down through time have always believed that there are immaterial features to reality. However, we physicalists have come to realize at this point in history, if you think carefully about it, that reality is only physical because theism is a faulty and primitive system of scientific explanation filling in the gaps with God. If saying this is your concern, you have no worries.
Another caricature and incorrect at that. What we say is this: The theists could never offer any evidence - except HEARSAY - that there is any kind of supernatural realm. Therefore we do not take you seriously, UNTIL you can offer REAL evidence for your claim. We stay open to the suggestion, but you must present an epistemological method to verify your claim. Because - and this is not meant in an insulting way - your word alone has absolutely no credibility; you need to substantiate it.
Lame, discredited theory of religion.
Ah, so the lighning is still considered the flaming sword of God? And epilepsy is still caused by demons? That is why there are all those exorcists still around?
OK, cool. Glad to hear it. Back at you shortly below.
Fine. I will be here. We have been dancing around too long. Time to get down to “business”.
 
Damn.

No, I guess it’s not, and therefore our entire legal system is based upon myth and will shortly be done away with.

This is only reasonable. Because, now that I think about it, I cannot find “justice” under my microscope either.
True, “justice” is just a concept. But don’t worry. There is no “justice” system - there is ONLY a “legal” system. And the best evidence is STILL the physical one. The only non-physical evidence allowed in the courtroom is the testimonial of eye-witnesses, and even that is viewed as seriously inferior to the physical evidence. Why do you think that the “hearsay” second-hand evidence is excluded? Because it is not reliable. Why is it that ONE piece of physical evidence will discredit the testimonial of a thousand eye-witnesses?
 
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