Let’s try this again and see where it gets us. You specifically requested that you be asked any moral problem to which you will provide a specific moral evaluation:
You can ask me a number of moral questions to which I will provide specific moral evaluations.
So I asked you one:
So please point me to the standard of reference for determining the morality of factory farming…How do you determine what we ‘ought’ to do and how will it differ from how I approach the same problem?
So where is the problem here? Well I see the problem in that you cannot give a boiler plate answer to a moral problem that you can look up in the Catechism. Extra marital sex? Well, that one’s easy:
It’s expressed in the Catholic Catechism and in many other documents and teachings of the Catholic Church.
Just point to the text and say it must be wrong because it is written. Notwithstanding that ‘ordered to the good of human existence and flourishing’ is not relevant to most people’s idea of why they have sex. You might note that almost all Catholic women have, at some point, used contraception. Not that that in itself makes it the right thing to do. Just that it makes your comment irrelevant in almost all real life situations as they all had sex which was not ordered to the good of human flourishing etc… And I really would like to consider how these problems actually affect us in concrete ways.
If the answer to a simple question like: ‘Do you want to go to bed?’ was ‘No thanks. It wouldn’t be ordered to the good of human existence and flourishing’ then it probably wouldn’t be a good idea in the first place. Where are the practical answers that others have given? ‘No thanks, I don’t want to take the chance of getting pregnant/getting an STD/ hating myself in the morning’? Well, you can’t use those because they are not always applicable which means that ‘extra marital sex is always wrong’ does not stand up.
And in any case, you determine morality (at least when not cutting and pasting from the catechism) exactly as I do. Which we will discover as soon as you decide to answer the question above. Because you won’t find the answer in church teaching or the bible or the catechism. You might find some guidance , but how you interpret that guidance will be down to you. That is, it will be your personal interpretation of what will be morally correct.
If you don’t want to answer it, then please let me know so I won’t have to keep repeating it.
It is, according to the catechism.
1626 The Church holds the exchange of consent between the spouses to be the indispensable element that "makes the marriage."127 If consent is lacking there is no marriage.
1627 The consent consists in a “human act by which the partners mutually give themselves to each other”: “I take you to be my wife” - "I take you to be my husband."128 This consent that binds the spouses to each other finds its fulfillment in the two “becoming one flesh.”
Sex is the re-affirmation of the covenant made between two people… If you are not married then there is no covenant to seal. Sex in pre-marriage is enjoyment only.
See above. The commitment made to each other is sufficient for the Catholic Church to consider it a marriage. Oh, as long as you ‘become one flesh’ to bind each other. So you need to have sex.
They are normalizing extramarital sex and pretending that the formal exchange of consent between a man and a woman prior to entering into a sexual relationship is an unnecessary exercise.
See above. A formal exchange is not required.
And they haven’t bothered to put a ring on it? If so, then they haven’t really given their entire selves to each other.
See above. A ring isn’t required. A formal marriage is simply a celebration and sanctification of the consent. Which would be difficult if you had no belief in God. So are you saying that no atheists are married? Are you saying that a couple who have spent a lifetime in a loving and fruitful relationship are not committed because they didn’t feel the need to formalise it? Please, give me a break…