E
estesbob
Guest
A very small minority.88% of the abuse was homosexual rape of post pubsecent males.Factually wrong. There have been priests involved with girls and women only.
A very small minority.88% of the abuse was homosexual rape of post pubsecent males.Factually wrong. There have been priests involved with girls and women only.
Actually no, sodomy is all inherently sterile sexual acts (even if both parties involved are of the opposite sex) e.g. anal sex and oral sex although I concede the correct term would be “bugger” in this case not “sodomize” by which I refer to you defiling the English language.Let’s see…sodomy is the ramming of the male sexual organ into the lower digestive tract of another person. A common form of gay sex.
Now you are intimating that I, Zoltan, am performing that act with “the language”.
Joie, old sport, I don’t know how to tell you this, but “the language” has no digestive tract at all. So it really can’t work.
I would think that an intelligent writer like yourself could come up with a better analogy than a disgusting, perverted sexual practice.
Actually for homosexuality that is a definition and the word homosexual was defined through usage in the book, but of course since the book was deliberately written to be inaccessible to plebes how could you know that?That’s all really special…but it is not a definition.
My DEFINITION is logical, intuitively sound and is in agreement with the Church’s definition as found in the catechism
Actually that’s not an analogy, I used the word in a fashion that it has had since the beginning and that particular meaning of that word is a natural extension of it’s etymological roots.Another, Joie de Vivre analogy![]()
Who is Barney? Is he a man of straw? Also, thou shall not have more than three consecutive periods in a row unless it is exactly four and the first one is in fact used as a full stop to denote the end of a sentence.You don’t know Barney…
Do you have evidence that shows that 88% of the abuse was men at or above the age of 16? Because I’m pretty sure the vast majority of abuse victims as defined in the Jay report were NOT post-pubescent, and were, in fact, under the age of 15, not having fully developed secondary sexual characteristics yet. If you have some evidence that contradicts the Jay report that the victims were overwhelmingly not post-pubescent, I would like to see it.A very small minority.88% of the abuse was homosexual rape of post pubsecent males.
My statistics came from the Jay Report. Puberty occurs before the age of 16 so I don’t know why that is relevant to the discussion. .One simply can not dismiss the fact the overwhelming majority of those abused were post pubsecent males.Do you have evidence that shows that 88% of the abuse was men at or above the age of 16? Because I’m pretty sure the vast majority of abuse victims as defined in the Jay report were NOT post-pubescent, and were, in fact, under the age of 15, not having fully developed secondary sexual characteristics yet. If you have some evidence that contradicts the Jay report that the victims were overwhelmingly not post-pubescent, I would like to see it.
Absolutely not true.My statistics came from the Jay Report. Puberty occurs before the age of 16 so I don’t know why that is relevant to the discussion. .One simply can not dismiss the fact the overwhelming majority of those abused were post pubsecent males.
Thank you.The John Jay Report can be found here:
Breakdown of victims by age and gender can be found in the chart on page 19 of the pdf file.
Also of interest is the graph of the incidence of abuse by year on page 16 of the pdf file.
Puberty is not defined as being 16 or older You are attempting to start a semantics argument The truth is 88% of the abuse was homosexual rape of post pubsecent males.It’s in the report_the problem was not pedophilic priests-it was homosexual priests. .Absolutely not true.
Pre-pubescent males are men under the age of 11. (pedophilia is the attraction here).
Pubescent males are men between ages 11-15 (hebephilia is the attraction here).
Post-pubescent males are men ages 16 and up (ephebophilia/teleiophilia/gerontophilia cover the 3 age groups here).
The Jay Report listed the overwhelmingly majority of abuse victims as under the age of 16, making your claim that they were post-pubescent false.
You didn’t say PUBERTAL males. You said POST-pubertal males. There is a HUGE distinction here. The vast majority of abuse was NEITHER pedophilic nor homosexual; it was hebephilic abuse of pubescent (not post-pubescent) male victims.Puberty is not defined as being 16 or older You are attempting to start a semantics argument The truth is 88% of the abuse was homosexual rape of post pubsecent males.It’s in the report_the problem was not pedophilic priests-it was homosexual priests. .
So it isn’t homosexual rape if the male is under 15? Again the report shows that 88% of the abuse was homosexual rape of post pubescent makes Rather than admit the obvious-the abuse was almost exclusively carried out by homosexual priests-you want to argue about terminology.Thank you.
65.44% of the male abuse victims were under the age of 15. And while the 15-17 block isn’t further broken up, if we divided it evenly by age (which it isn’t, since the bell curve means that 15-yos are much more likely to have been abused than 17-yos), the most conservative estimate one could come up with is that roughly 77% of the male abuse victims were, in fact, not post-pubescent.
Puberty isn’t an instantaneous thing, it is a process that in males usually finishes 16-17 range.My statistics came from the Jay Report. Puberty occurs before the age of 16 so I don’t know why that is relevant to the discussion. .One simply can not dismiss the fact the overwhelming majority of those abused were post pubsecent males.
Actually, considering, at a bare minimum, 77% of the male abuse was children under the age of 16, it is literally impossible mathematically for 88% of abuse to have featured post-pubescent malesSo it isn’t homosexual rape if the male is under 15? Again the report shows that 88% of the abuse was homosexual rape of post pubescent makes.
At what age does homosexual rape become homosexual rape? Can we set least agree this was not a problem of pedoiphilia in the Priesthood?Puberty isn’t an instantaneous thing, it is a process that in males usually finishes 16-17 range.
Of course it wasn’t a pedophile problem. It was a hebephile problem. We allowed, through too much trust, hebephiles to infiltrate the Church to get access to young, pubescent boys and girls.At what age does homosexual rape become homosexual rape? Can we set least agree this was not a problem of pedoiphilia in the Priesthood?
Maybe estesbob has some personal knowledge that men have a natural appetite for pubescent people that we as women simply don’t understand.Of course it wasn’t a pedophile problem. It was a hebephile problem. We allowed, through too much trust, hebephiles to infiltrate the Church to get access to young, pubescent boys and girls.
I highly doubt it, and I would never insinuate such a thing. I just think gay people are an easy scapegoat for people not wanting to address the fact that we, as a Church, allowed child predators to infiltrate our priesthood.Maybe estesbob has some personal knowledge that men have a natural appetite for pubescent people that we as women simply don’t understand.
I suspect by post-pubescent, you mean a person for whom puberty has already commenced. So this refers to upper primary school and beyond. To be clear, we’re talking about a cohort that is comprised, substantially, of children.A very small minority.88% of the abuse was homosexual rape of post pubsecent males.
Pardon my plebeian status, but to claim that sodomy is sterile is totally absurd.Actually no, sodomy is all inherently sterile sexual acts (even if both parties involved are of the opposite sex) e.g. anal sex and oral sex although I concede the correct term would be “bugger” in this case not “sodomize” by which I refer to you defiling the English language.
If a word is defined by usage…it can mean anything.Actually for homosexuality that is a definition and the word homosexual was defined through usage in the book, but of course since the book was deliberately written to be inaccessible to plebes how could you know that?
Your grasp of the obvious is astounding. I was simply defining the word.You are neither coining a word nor is it a natural evolution of the word.
As long as it meets our definition. You may use the word in any fashion you like.Actually that’s not an analogy, I used the word in a fashion that it has had since the beginning and that particular meaning of that word is a natural extension of it’s etymological roots.
Barney is not exactly a strawman. He is my example of a gay man. An “every-gay-man” so to say. He can be an unassuming gentleman or a flaming drag queen…a guy who deals with his problems or a radical gay activist. We will see him again.Who is Barney? Is he a man of straw? Also, thou shall not have more than three consecutive periods in a row unless it is exactly four and the first one is in fact used as a full stop to denote the end of a sentence.
I am not counting financial settlements nor am I diminishing the suffering of abused girls.As am I. Does the size of financial settlement really matter, or are the facts of the crime more pertinent?
Form your own view on what value of law suit the following might be worth in the USA…one abused girl suicides and the other plunged into alcohol abuse and a resulting severe disability. They were sisters in primary school, victims of the same priest.
abc.net.au/lateline/content/2012/s3640045.htm
This priest abused boys too.