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GaryTaylor
Guest
I follow but I’m a little unsure of this… “I think that divider is higher or lower for any individual person, and a mutual romance is defined by whoever has the lowest barrier for erotic romance.”Well it is becoming more common for theologians to interpret any inherently infertile sexual act between two people as sodomy. So this would include contraceptive usage as contraception, oral/anal sex, intentional ejaculation outside one’s wife, etc.
As for the OP:
I defined romance in another thread as “an expression of one’s [non-filial] love for another.” This can mean an expression of erotic love (romantic sex), an expression of agape love (treating someone to a romantic date, for example), or an expression of storge love (a romantic commitment to another).
When discussing the issue of heterosexual vs. homosexual love, we must consider this trichotomy of romance, and how individual acts are meant. One would assume the Church would frown upon expressions of erotic love (e.g. erotic romance) in homosexuals/unmarried people in all circumstances. And indeed, the Church does consider it grave matter to make out with anyone that you are not married to for the purpose of erotic expression/delight.
So then the question becomes, what are the bounds wherewithin an act that is not inherently immoral can fall under agape romance or storge romance, and when are these two types of romance licit under the Church for those of the same sex to engage in. I would argue that storge romance is absolutely licit for any two people unbound by prior commitments to engage in, as the vow of commitment to another need not be a marital vow, although marital vows are the strongest act one can make of storge romance.
Which leaves us with only agape romance. So the ultimate two questions of these threads are:
Personally, I believe that the answer is yes to the first question. There’s not really much I can expound on with that answer though, so I will instead direct myself to Question 2:
- “Is agape romance licit in the Church for any two unbound people to engage in?” and:
- “Where does agape romance end and where does erotic romance begin?”
I think agape romance and erotic romance have a murky divider; I think that divider is higher or lower for any individual person, and a mutual romance is defined by whoever has the lowest barrier for erotic romance. As long as a couple’s acts are not inherently immoral (e.g. extramarital sex, even if done for agape reasons, is inherently immoral), I see no reason to bar them as long as they remain within the confines of a mutual agape romance. I think everyone can agree that a mutual erotic romance, defined by the lower threshold of the two partners, is off-limits in an extramarital friendship/relationship.
In addition, the storge romance is what underlies the commitment two people make to each other. Whereas marital vows undertake acts of both storge and erotic romance [consummation], and are thus the highest act of storge romance, there is no reason to believe two people could not engage in storge romance with each other in a non-erotic way; that is to say, two people could commit to each other with no intentions of ever engaging in erotic romance. And a relationship, at its deepest core, is first and foremost a storge romance, right?
Anyways, I hope I helped explain my position from a philosophical view. I am very interested to see if anyone can find any Church discussion of this issue; so far I have been unable.
Why is “romance” defined by those with the lower barrier? How is that mutual?