Is Sola Scriptura Biblical? You Betcha!

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Actually, all of these can be supported by Scripture. Luke 1:28, Rev 12:1, and Acts 1:20.
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Luke 1:28
]28 And coming in, he said to her, “Greetings, [a]favored one! The Lord **is with you.”

Where in this Scripture does it say Mary is without sin? It says she is favored.

The Greek word for favored, χαριτόω (charitoō 5487)
  1. accepted
    to make lovely or acceptable. Reference(s)
  2. favoured (highly)
    to make χάρις (charis 5485) (in the subjective sense) to grace, that is to say in passive as here, to be gracious or favoured (this specific meaning occurs only in Eph 1:6).
  3. graced [marginal] (much)
    ghly)word for favored
Ephesians 1:6
6 to the praise of the glory of His grace, which He freely bestowed on us in the Beloved.
bestowed is the same word used in Luke. So using that logic then the Church at Ephesus was without sin.**
 
you’re taking an english word and finding a greek word that fits it. Don’t make another translation/substitution, go back to the original text, the original Greek. What’s the greek word for “Full of Grace”??? Kecharitomene.

catholic.com/library/Immaculate_Conception_and_Assum.asp
When discussing the Immaculate Conception, an implicit reference may be found in the angel’s greeting to Mary. The angel Gabriel said, “Hail, full of grace, the Lord is with you” (Luke 1:28). The phrase “full of grace” is a translation of the Greek word kecharitomene. It therefore expresses a characteristic quality of Mary.
The traditional translation, “full of grace,” is better than the one found in many recent versions of the New Testament, which give something along the lines of “highly favored daughter.” Mary was indeed a highly favored daughter of God, but the Greek implies more than that (and it never mentions the word for “daughter”). The grace given to Mary is at once permanent and of a unique kind. Kecharitomene is a perfect passive participle of charitoo, meaning “to fill or endow with grace.” Since this term is in the perfect tense, it indicates that Mary was graced in the past but with continuing effects in the present. So, the grace Mary enjoyed was not a result of the angel’s visit. In fact, Catholics hold, it extended over the whole of her life, from conception onward. She was in a state of sanctifying grace from the first moment of her existence.
 
Ephesians 1:6
6 to the praise of the glory of His grace, which He freely bestowed on us in the Beloved.
bestowed is the same word used in Luke. So using that logic then the Church at Ephesus was without sin.
Boy, you really like bringing this one up don’tcha?? I don’t see how it’s the same word used in Luke. Scripture must be read in context; which means Luke 1:28 has its own context, and Eph 1:6 has its own different context.

From the Catholic Encyclopedia… newadvent.org/cathen/05485a.htm
In a long sentence that reads like a hymn (Ephesians 1:3-14), Paul praises God for the blessings which He has bestowed upon all the faithful in accordance with the eternal plan of His will, the sublime plan by which all are to be united under one head, Christ, a plan which, although heretofore secret and mysterious, is now made manifest to believers.
 
Please give us the verses where it says that
  • Mary sinned
  • Mary was NOT assumed
  • there is no succession of popes.
Remember, you’re asserting that these beliefs contradict Scripture.

Also, please provide the Scripture verses that say that all beliefs must be supported by Scripture.
Romans 3:23
23 for all [m]have sinned and fall short of the glory of God, 24 being justified as a gift by His grace through the redemption which is in Christ Jesus;

Luke 1:38
38 And Mary said, “Behold, the [ab]bondslave of the Lord; may it be done to me according to your word.” And the angel departed from her.

I do not believe there is a scripture about how Mary died. and also there is no mention of the Papacy in scripture
 
you’re taking an english word and finding a greek word that fits it. Don’t make another translation/substitution, go back to the original text, the original Greek. What’s the greek word for “Full of Grace”??? Kecharitomene.

catholic.com/library/Immaculate_Conception_and_Assum.asp
what is the strongs number for that word.
 
Which “believers” should we listen to, ibe?
The ones who say baptism is an ordinance? Or the ones who say it’s a sacrament?
The ones who say that the day of worship is Sunday? Or the ones who say it must be done on Saturday?
The ones who say that women can be pastors? Or the ones who say that they can’t speak in church?
The ones who say that divorce and re-marriage is ok? Or the ones who say it is, as Christ said, adultery?
The ones who say that gay marriage is a right? Or the ones who say that marriage is between a man and a woman?
The ones who say that music is forbidden to be played in church? Or the ones who have organs and guitars and bongo drums?
The ones who say that speaking in tongues must be part of the worship service? Or the ones who say it can’t be?
:confused::confused:
PRmerger I agree with you…
I add, the very idea of “Scriptures ALONE” is a man made TRADITION, it first appeared sixteen hundred years AFTER Jesus!

Saint Augustine is CHRISTIAN, he said, about Scripture Alone (Sola Scriptura)
And thus a man who is resting upon faith, hope, and love, and who keeps a firm hold upon these, does not need the Scriptures except for the purpose of instructing others. Accordingly, many live without copies of the Scriptures, even in solitude, on the strength of these three graces. (On Christian Doctrine, I, 39:43; NPNF 1, Vol. II, 534)

And about Church Authority to interpret scriptures, he said…
Church (Scripture Interpreter)
To be sure, although on this matter, we cannot quote a clear example taken from the canonical Scriptures, at any rate, on this question, we are following the true thought of Scriptures when we observe what has appeared good to the universal Church which the authority of these same Scriptures recommends to you; thus, since Holy Scripture cannot be mistaken, anyone fearing to be misled by the obscurity of this question** has only to consult on this same subject this very Church which the Holy Scriptures point out without ambiguity.** (Against Cresconius I:33; in Eno, 134)

🙂
 
I have no idea what a “strongs number” is.
Romans 3:23
23 for all [m]have sinned and fall short of the glory of God, 24 being justified as a gift by His grace through the redemption which is in Christ Jesus;

Luke 1:38
38 And Mary said, “Behold, the [ab]bondslave of the Lord; may it be done to me according to your word.” And the angel departed from her.

I do not believe there is a scripture about how Mary died. and also there is no mention of the Papacy in scripture
All doesn’t mean all in that context, the word actually means most, or a great many. Do babies commit sin? Do senile people? Do babies in the womb? Do kids before the age of reason?

Wow… never seen a translation that made that say “bond slave”… are you sure you’re using an approved translation? :confused: Them protestants like to twist the Word of God don’tcha know…:knight1: What would be wrong with being a servant of God? That is NOT an admission of sin. Angels serve God, and Gabriel is sinless. Lucifer was sinless… then he sinned and became a demon, the evil one. But serving God does not mean one is sinful.

So… perhaps since Mary’s death wasn’t recorded in Scripture… she never died. After all, how can we trust a non-biblical source??? :rolleyes:
There is indeed a great amount of references to the Papacy in Scripture. Why don’tcha start reading here.
 
Wow… never seen a translation that made that say “bond slave”… are you sure you’re using an approved translation? :confused:
I was surprised at this too but it is accurate. The word used here was doule {doo’-lay} 1) a female slave, bondmaid, handmaid.
 
Romans 3:23
23 for all [m]have sinned and fall short of the glory of God, 24 being justified as a gift by His grace through the redemption which is in Christ Jesus;
I don’t think you want to use this verse to indicate that Mary sinned. For, clearly, “all” doesn’t mean, literally, “all”.

There are exceptions, no?

I mean, there’s really One Biggie that you believe never sinned, right?
 
I disagree with the way you’re characterizing the debate so far. Again, it is very difficult to speak of sola scriptura without making reference to its counterpoints—namely Tradition and the Magisterium—all the more so when my opponents keeping making statements such as, “that’s why we need an infallible interpreter” or “you have no objective way to decided which interpretation is true” and words to that effect.
You may see this as a debate, I see it as a fight for the salvation of your immortal soul. I have no objection to bringing up these points so long as the conclusion relates to the assertion. It began to look as though the topic was being steered away to other topics while the assertion remains unaddressed.
But I don’t accuse you Catholics of “dancing” around the issue when you bring up these counterpoints because I see it as part and parcel of the entire debate—for Catholics also are reacting to what they see as problematic with sola scriptura.
The counterpoints brought up speak directly to the issue at hand. We are not attempting to derail the challenge by debating the individual points themselves.
So when we Protestants come to the same conclusion as your Catholics we do so on the basis of Sacred Tradition and not because of, but rather in spite of what the Bible says?
Which Protestants are you referring to, Miguel? Some of you have different interpretations “in spite of what the Bible says.”
And you think you can demonstrate this?
I just did 👍
Okay, let’s see where this is going:
Jason L Barnes:
The point Eric was making by playing devil’s advocate demonstrates, from actual historical events, that more than one interpretation of the text is possible.
But what is the relevance of this point, which I do not deny, by the way? In other words, so what?
It is entirely relevant as repeatedly demonstrated throughout history that multiple interpretations are possible using the same scripture verses. To say their exegesis is bad and yours is good must be demonstrated otherwise it is an opinion and refuted.
"Jason L Barnes:
Are they open to interpretation by fallible men? Yes, IF done so without some way of knowing the author’s intent.
I’m not sure I’m following you here.
I admit I could have been clearer here. Since man is fallible, it is possible for scripture to be interpreted in a number of ways, using good exegesis I might add. In order to determine the true intended meaning we must know the authors true intention when he authored the work.
If you’re asking whether or not we can get into the author’s head, I don’t think we can.
I agree that “we” can’t because you are outside of the deposit of faith.
True. But then has anyone claimed that exegesis can get us into the author’s head?
Understanding author’s intent is part of exegesis. The Church has maintained author’s intent from the time it was given to Her by the Apostles themselves.
And how do you know that “PARADOSIS” can do this?
I know this because the Church, founded by Jesus Christ, containing the Sacred Tradition, passed down through the generations, tells us this, and it is trustworthy.
And how do you know what the precise content of the PARADOSIS is?
If you’re asking for a book reference stating the “precise content” then I fear you missed the point. 3862 parádosis (from 3844 /pará, “from close-beside” and 1325 /dídōmi, “give over”) – properly, give (hand over) from close-beside, referring to tradition as passed on from one generation to the next. strongsnumbers.com/greek/3862.htm I doubt they were slipping each other scriptural pamphlets.
That might be true, if we were able to first know what that paradosis is. But apart from scripture, where are you going to find any access to that paradosis?
The Catholic Church is a great place to start 👍
But you haven’t yet shown that my interpretation only “happens” to agree with the Catholic Church because I’m unwittingly relying on PRADOSIS or Sacred Tradition.
Correct me if I’m wrong but, wasn’t your list of interpretations meant to prove sola scriptura?

I wouldn’t go so far as to say “unwittingly.” We are all created in God’s image and have an inborn desire to know God and subsequently, truth. To be drawn to Paradosis is only a good and natural function of this desire.

God bless!
 
ESMDHokie77 & PRmerger
I point out…
Matthew 7:21
“Not everyone who says to me, ‘Lord, Lord,’ will enter the kingdom of heaven,** but only he who does the will of my Father **who is in heaven.

&

**Luke 1:38 ****“I am the Lord’s servant,” **Mary answered. “May it be to me as you have said.” Then the angel left her.

FACT: Mary truly does the “Will of God” she is in heaven!!!

Dogknox🙂
 
I have no idea what a “strongs number” is.

All doesn’t mean all in that context, the word actually means most, or a great many. Do babies commit sin? Do senile people? Do babies in the womb? Do kids before the age of reason?

Wow… never seen a translation that made that say “bond slave”… are you sure you’re using an approved translation? :confused: Them protestants like to twist the Word of God don’tcha know…:knight1: What would be wrong with being a servant of God? That is NOT an admission of sin. Angels serve God, and Gabriel is sinless. Lucifer was sinless… then he sinned and became a demon, the evil one. But serving God does not mean one is sinful.

So… perhaps since Mary’s death wasn’t recorded in Scripture… she never died. After all, how can we trust a non-biblical source??? :rolleyes:
There is indeed a great amount of references to the Papacy in Scripture. Why don’tcha start reading here.
The word i believe you are looking for is slave. Mary was a slave of her Lord just like we are slaves.It is a word nobody likes to use but it is the correct word. do you see that number 1401, that is the number used to look up greek words.
δοῦλος (doulos 1401)
  1. servant -s
    a slave, one bound to serve (from δέω (deō 1210) to bind) one whose will and capacities are wholly at the service of another (opposite to ἐλεύθερος (eleutheros 1658), free). δοῦλος (doulos 1401) is used of the lowest scale of servitude, but when transferred to Christian service it expresses the highest devotion of one who is bound by love.
    (a) with Θεοῦ (Theou) of God, or χριστοῦ (christou) of Christ, etc.
    (b) Adjective, serving, bound to serve, in bondage. Reference(s)
 
ESMDHokie77 & PRmerger
I point out…
Matthew 7:21
“Not everyone who says to me, ‘Lord, Lord,’ will enter the kingdom of heaven,** but only he who does the will of my Father **who is in heaven.
I pray that we will all be obedient to God and to do His will. I sincerely hope our spreading of Catholic truths in these forums will reach out and click for our separated brethren that are in dialogue with us…
Since this thread is fairly close to wrapping up, I wanted to say I have thoroughly enjoyed following it from start to finish.

And yes I suppose it is also fitting to use the word “slave”, and I admit that a tracking system for word usage in the Bible would be useful.
 
I do not believe there is a scripture about how Mary died.
'zactly. So how can you say that the dogma of the Assumption contradicts Scripture.

You’d have to provide a verse that the Assumption contradicts.
and also there is no mention of the Papacy in scripture
Do you mean the word, or the concept?
 
I have no idea what a “strongs number” is.

All doesn’t mean all in that context, the word actually means most, or a great many. Do babies commit sin? Do senile people? Do babies in the womb? Do kids before the age of reason?

Wow… never seen a translation that made that say “bond slave”… are you sure you’re using an approved translation? :confused: Them protestants like to twist the Word of God don’tcha know…:knight1: What would be wrong with being a servant of God? That is NOT an admission of sin. Angels serve God, and Gabriel is sinless. Lucifer was sinless… then he sinned and became a demon, the evil one. But serving God does not mean one is sinful.

So… perhaps since Mary’s death wasn’t recorded in Scripture… she never died. After all, how can we trust a non-biblical source??? :rolleyes:
There is indeed a great amount of references to the Papacy in Scripture. Why don’tcha start reading here.
The CC did not procaim the Immaculate Conception until 1854. so for 1854 years she had original sin? Maybe that is why they can’t use Scipture alone
 
The CC did not procaim the Immaculate Conception until 1854. so for 1854 years she had original sin.
That is like saying that before the proton was named there were no protons. A formal definition/proclamation does not create a belief, it refines it. Her sinlessness is well documented as a belief THROUGHOUT the entire history of Christianity. Link.
 
The CC did not procaim the Immaculate Conception until 1854. so for 1854 years she had original sin? Maybe that is why they can’t use Scipture alone
You are under the misapprehension that when the CC proclaims something as dogma that it wasn’t proclaimed, believed professed prior to that.

This teaching has been a constant teaching of the Church, from its earliest inception.
 
That is like saying that before the proton was named there were no protons. A formal definition/proclamation does not create a belief, it refines it. Her sinlessness is well documented as a belief THROUGHOUT the entire history of Christianity. Link.
Do you really think that if Mary was without sin that God would have mentioned this in his Word. We know Jesus was without sin because it says so in Hebrews 415 For we do not have a high priest who cannot sympathize with our weaknesses, but One who has been tempted in all things as we are, yet without sin.

.
 
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