(Continued…)
Wait a minute. You’re the one who first said the doctrine isn’t clear. But that’s your interpretation.
The doctrine
is clearly taught within God’s
revelation. But it is
not clearly taught within the Bible alone.
And it’s the major premise here in your argument (what I’m calling “The Trinity Gambit.”) But I deny your major and so it’s not on me to prove the clarity of the Trinity, but on you to show why its unclear.
Wow, Miguel! For a moment there you sounded like Parker, the OP (with his, “Sola Scriptura is biblical because Catholics can’t prove it’s not” statements).
Well, I will tell you what I told him: In a scholarly debate, the burden of proof falls upon the person making the positive claim. You are the one making the positive claim because of these statements you made:
“And it (the Bible) does clearly teach the Trinity.”
“If I wanted to defend the Trinity on the basis of scripture I could.”
So to this I say, “Prove it.” In other words, it is, indeed, up to you to prove the clarity of the Bible’s teaching of the Doctrine of the Holy Trinity.
But I will also point out that I already have shown why it is unclear, and that happened in these posts:
Post #682
Post #683
Post #684
Post #685
Let’s be clear about your claim. You draw the conclusion that because there are multiple interpretation of the Bible that the Bible is therefore unclear. But that conclusion does not follow. It overlooks the possibility that some interpretations are simply wrong.
Then use the Bible alone to
PROVE that they are wrong! The whole point of this challenge is to use a specific example to see if the Bible is capable of actually doing what
your definition of Sola Scriptura says it is! In other words, show me the material and formal sufficiency of the Bible that can determine the Doctrine of the Holy Trinity. If you cannot then the Bible alone is not sufficient for the determination of
all Christian doctrine, and I may also add that it is not sufficient to defend doctrine against other plausible interpretations of Scripture (at least as far as the Doctrine of the Holy Trinity goes).
If I give a Spanish vocabulary quiz to my students and half of them miss the same word–that doesn’t mean the definition of the word is in doubt. The mere fact of a wrong interpretation does not mean the answer is intrinsically ambiguous.
Some interpretations can be objectively declared to be wrong based on the Scriptures alone. For example, because Jesus said, “I came to bring not peace but a sword,” one could say that Jesus wants us to hate our enemies. But this contradicts what Jesus clearly said about loving our enemies. There is really not much room, if any, for an honest debate in this case.
But in other cases, there may be more than one
plausible interpretation, and these interpretations may convey different meanings (even when the wider context of the passages are examined). In this case, the text is, indeed, intrinsically ambiguous. To have complete certainty over its meaning, we have to ask the author what he specifically had in mind when he wrote it.
**The Scriptures were ultimately written by God. When certain passages in the Bible are ambiguous, our only recourse is to, in essence, find out what God meant when this passage was written. According to Catholics, this is done by appealing to Sacred Tradition and the Magisterium (with its guaranteed guidance of the Holy Spirit to officially define Scripture and Tradition).
But it seems that according to adherents of Sola Scriptura, finding out what God meant is done by arguing whose personal, fallible interpretation of Scripture sounds the most reasonable. But how often do people agree with what is “most reasonable”? This is the process that you have basically been doing when debating me (and others) over Scriptural interpretations in this thread. And this is also what we see in the responses of ibetrippin07 in the following posts (as well as others) :**
Post #147
Post #148
Post #752
Post #753
Post #754
Post #755
Post #770
(Continued in my next post)