Is the AntiChrist...Christ!?

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Joshua27

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I would often wonder how the AntiChrist would appear and deceive the world. Wouldn’t the world be on guard from such a malevolent “dark one” who would assume to say “I am the King of all the earth”?

Whether religious, or athiestic, the history of people is such that we always struggle to accept any outsiders; we’re always apprehensive to accept anyone foreign or new…and yet scripture tells us that the AntiChrist has/will decieve the whole world [an affirmative statement whether a pending or a foregone conclusion. It never says the AntiChrist “attempts” or “tries” to deceive, but has/will]. So how would such deception be possible for the AntiChrist to accomplish?
Mathew 24:24 - For false christs and false prophets will appear and perform great signs and miracles to deceive even the elect–if that were possible.

Mark 13:22 - For false christs and false prophets will appear and perform signs and miracles to deceive the elect–if that were possible.​

So scripture says that false christs would perform signs to deceive the elect. If this is true, what was the sign of the true Christ’s authenticity?
Matthew 12:38 - One day some teachers of religious law and Pharisees came to Jesus and said, “Teacher, we want you to show us a miraculous sign to prove your authority.”

39] But Jesus replied, "Only an evil, adulterous generation would demand a miraculous sign; but the only sign I will give them is the sign of the prophet Jonah.

40] For as Jonah was three days and three nights in the belly of a huge fish, so the Son of Man will be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth.​

This sign is repeated by Christ in Luke 11:29, and yet it would seem that we’ve cassually overlooked one of the most important proofs of Christ’s authenticity: That he would be buried 3 days and 3 nights and rise on the 3rd day. I fear that what we’ve been conditioned to know is not the truth…and yet this is a cornerstone of the entire faith. Is the foundation of Christianity a liar?

Now I’ve gone over this backwards and forwards, and the math of our belief just doesn’t work:

Day 1: Friday (Crucifixion)
Night 1: Friday (In Grave)

Day 2: Saturday (In Grave)
Night 2: Saturday (In Grave)

Day 3: Sunday (Morning Resurrection)
Night 3: Sunday [N/A; Christ’s already resurrected]

…By the math of our accepted belief, Christ was only in the grave 1 day and 2 nights. Even if we include the day of crucifixtion as another day in the grave, that still only gives us 2 days and 2 nights in the grave.

Even if we flip the days (like in biblical reference) so that evening is first and then morning is after, the math still doesn’t work:

Night 1: Friday (Crucifixion at night!? Incorrect)
Day 1: Friday (In Grave)

Night 2: Saturday (In Grave)
Day 2: Saturday (In Grave)

Night 3: Sunday (In Grave)
Day 3: Sunday (Morning Resurrection)

…By this math, Christ was in the grave 2 days and 2 nights but his crucifixion wasn’t at night based on scripture.

Now Christ is not a liar. Christ said that he would be in the heart of the earth for 3 days and 3 nights as proof that he was authentic, but Christianity says Christ was crucified, dead and burried on Good Friday, and then resurrected on Easter Sunday, which can’t possibly add up to 3 days and 3 nights “burried”.

We were given one sign - stated several times - so (obviously) it was important to know. Paul said:
2 Corinthians 11:3 - But I am afraid that just as Eve was deceived by the serpent’s cunning, your minds may somehow be led astray from your sincere and pure devotion to Christ.

4] For if he that cometh preacheth another Jesus, whom we have not preached, or if ye receive another spirit, which ye have not received, or another gospel, which ye have not accepted…​

Who’s incorrect: Christianity that has said, “Jesus died on Good Friday and on rose Easter Sunday”, or Christ who’s said, “[buried] 3 days and 3 nights…and * will rise on the 3rd day”?

Which is reliable: Christ’s words or the words passed down by the Authorities of Christianity? Has another Christ been introduced; A Christ who lies? Or do you have another way of reconciling the scripture with the math?

If it doesn’t really matter, please explain why the only sign Christ gave to prove his authenticity doesn’t really matter…because if it “doesn’t really matter”, does Christianity “really matter at all”?*
 
Hmph…

(I thought my title was provocative enough…oh well.)
 
Where does it say “3 nights”. If Jesus arose on the 3rd day, then it took 2 nights to get to the 3rd day.
 
 
This answer is the best I have found. While I am no expert in languages, this person seems to know what they are talking about. Although I think he/she was mistaken in writing “three days later,” meaning to write “on the third day.”

So, although Jesus mentioned both days and nights, it seems that it would have been understood simply as days anyway, so Friday, Saturday, and Sunday.
 
From Haydock’s Catholic Bible Commentary
Mat 12:40
Three days and three nights; not three whole days and three nights, but part of three natural days, from which, in common computation, the nights used not to be separated. We have an instance of this, Esther 4:16, where the Jews were ordered to fast with her three days, and three nights: and yet (5:1) Esther, after part of three days, went to the king.
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This is what happened if reading the bible without regards of the differences in culture and tradition from 2 millennium ago and now.

Furthermore, the Jewish change of day is not 12 AM but at 6 PM and clock starts at 6 AM. Jesus died on the ninth hour (Mark 15) which means 3PM.

That should give your timeline more like this:

Day #1: Friday (Crucifixion) 3PM
---- 6PM change of day----
Day #2: Friday 6PM to Saturday 6PM (In Grave)
---- 6PM change of day----
Day #3: Saturday - risen between 6 PM and 6AM
---- 6PM change of day----
Day #4: Sunday - the women and apostles found the tom empty already early in the morning

Hope this help. God Bless
 
Joshua27 said:
I would often wonder how the AntiChrist would appear and deceive the world. Wouldn’t the world be on guard from such a malevolent “dark one” who would assume to say “I am the King of all the earth”?

Whether religious, or athiestic, the history of people is such that we always struggle to accept any outsiders; we’re always apprehensive to accept anyone foreign or new…and yet scripture tells us that the AntiChrist has/will decieve the whole world [an affirmative statement whether a pending or a foregone conclusion. It never says the AntiChrist “attempts” or “tries” to deceive, but has/will]. So how would such deception be possible for the AntiChrist to accomplish?
Mathew 24:24 - For false christs and false prophets will appear and perform great signs and miracles to deceive even the elect–if that were possible.

Mark 13:22 - For false christs and false prophets will appear and perform signs and miracles to deceive the elect–if that were possible.​

So scripture says that false christs would perform signs to deceive the elect. If this is true, what was the sign of the true Christ’s authenticity?
Matthew 12:38 - One day some teachers of religious law and Pharisees came to Jesus and said, "Teacher, we want you to show us a miraculous sign to prove your authority."

39] But Jesus replied, "Only an evil, adulterous generation would demand a miraculous sign; but the only sign I will give them is the sign of the prophet Jonah.

40] For as Jonah was three days and three nights in the belly of a huge fish, so the Son of Man will be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth.​

This sign is repeated by Christ in Luke 11:29, and yet it would seem that we’ve cassually overlooked one of the most important proofs of Christ’s authenticity: That he would be buried 3 days and 3 nights and rise on the 3rd day. I fear that what we’ve been conditioned to know is not the truth…and yet this is a cornerstone of the entire faith. Is the foundation of Christianity a liar?

Now I’ve gone over this backwards and forwards, and the math of our belief just doesn’t work:

Day 1: Friday (Crucifixion)
Night 1: Friday (In Grave)

Day 2: Saturday (In Grave)
Night 2: Saturday (In Grave)

Day 3: Sunday (Morning Resurrection)
Night 3: Sunday [N/A; Christ’s already resurrected]

…By the math of our accepted belief, Christ was only in the grave 1 day and 2 nights. Even if we include the day of crucifixtion as another day in the grave, that still only gives us 2 days and 2 nights in the grave.

Even if we flip the days (like in biblical reference) so that evening is first and then morning is after, the math still doesn’t work:

Night 1: Friday (Crucifixion at night!? Incorrect)
Day 1: Friday (In Grave)

Night 2: Saturday (In Grave)
Day 2: Saturday (In Grave)

Night 3: Sunday (In Grave)
Day 3: Sunday (Morning Resurrection)

…By this math, Christ was in the grave 2 days and 2 nights but his crucifixion wasn’t at night based on scripture.

Now Christ is not a liar. Christ said that he would be in the heart of the earth for 3 days and 3 nights as proof that he was authentic, but Christianity says Christ was crucified, dead and burried on Good Friday, and then resurrected on Easter Sunday, which can’t possibly add up to 3 days and 3 nights “burried”.

We were given one sign - stated several times - so (obviously) it was important to know. Paul said:
2 Corinthians 11:3 - But I am afraid that just as Eve was deceived by the serpent’s cunning, your minds may somehow be led astray from your sincere and pure devotion to Christ.

4] For if he that cometh preacheth another Jesus, whom we have not preached, or if ye receive another spirit, which ye have not received, or another gospel, which ye have not accepted…​

Who’s incorrect: Christianity that has said, “Jesus died on Good Friday and on rose Easter Sunday”, or Christ who’s said, “[buried] 3 days and 3 nights…and * will rise on the 3rd day”?

Which is reliable: Christ’s words* or the words passed down by the Authorities of Christianity? Has another Christ been introduced; A Christ who lies? Or do you have another way of reconciling the scripture with the math?

If it doesn’t really matter, please explain why the only sign Christ gave to prove his authenticity doesn’t really matter…because if it “doesn’t really matter”, does Christianity “really matter at all”?

**The person will come in the name of Christ and tell everyone that they worship the same God as you. But in fact, they are worshipping the Devil.

How can that happen? Its already happening.

muslimsopenyoureyes.blogspot.com**

.
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To the OP: friend, the true sign of Christ’s authenticity is not found only in the Sign of Jonah. He had many signs pointing to him, and he fulfilled them all. Consider the countless prophecies that He fulfilled and the demons (and Satan himself) who fled before Him! Think about the baptism in the Jordan, where the Trinity was unveiled, and where the voice of the Father and the descent of the Spirit affirmed him! Have no fear; the Church is not preaching another Jesus. There is no other Jesus to preach! The Sign of Jonah is not so much about “proving” Christ, for He had been and still is being proven time and time again. And the Church that proclaims Christ crucified and resurrected can hardly be anything other than what it claims to be: the humble servants and worshipers of Christ our God!
 
Joshua27:

I gave this apparent problem some considerable thought a few years ago, and came to a very convincing conclusion. Observe:

The FIRST THING you NEED to understand is that the numbering system of the ancients was DIFFERENT than the Arabic numbering system we commonly use today. The difference is the absence of the numeral ZERO. Ask any scholar what the Roman numeral for ZERO is, and he/she will be quick to tell you that they DIDN’T HAVE SUCH A NUMERAL. I suppose they figured that if you didn’t have anything to count, then you didn’t need to count it (yes, this was several centuries before modern-day deficit financing!!!). So when the ancients STARTED counting, they started with ONE. If you were at the crucifixion, and you mentioned the “three days and three nights” prophecy to another disciple of Jesus, he would immediately beginning counting Friday as day ONE.

The SECOND thing you need to know is that, until very recently in fact, the days were reckoned from Sunset to Sunset. That is, each day BEGINS at Sunset (around 6 pm at the time of the Passover). This is why, incidentally, many Catholics open their Christmas gifts after Sunset on Christmas Eve… because it’s NOT Christimas Eve after Sunset on Dec. 24, it’s actually Christmas DAY!

This knowledge now makes it very clear that Jesus was dead for THREE days (Friday until 6pm, all of Saturday until 6pm, and part of Sunday (which began 6pm on Saturday).

Now, you may observe, that still only takes care of TWO “nights” (Friday night and Saturday night). So where’s the THIRD night? Well, it’s nothing less than a MIRACLE from the hand of almighty God Himself on Good Friday!

"And it was about the sixth hour, and there was a darkness over all the earth until the ninth hour." - Luke 23:44
This is mentioned in THREE Gospels (Matt. 27:45 and mark 15:33 as well). When Jesus gave up the ghost at the ninth hour, the whole earth was in DARKNESS. God Himself ADDED a “night” to give us THE SIGN.

Hope THAT helps! 🙂
 
That’s really good stuff there. I’m gonna have to borrow that in the future 👍
 
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AngloCatholic1:
:yyeess::amen: 👍
 
I appreciate everyone who answered, it means there are some who actually take their faith seriously (and are not just cafeteria Christians).
From the answers given we read: (paraphrasing) Christ didn’t mean exactly what he said; The words weren’t recorded correctly; the sign of Jonah wasn’t the only proof of autheniticity (so it’s not crucial?); “3 nights” wasn’t actually recorded; 3 days & 3 nights just means 3 days; time isn’t regarded the same way today as back then…all which support Good Friday to Easter Sunday over Christ’s words…

So then can I conclude the following answers to my questions?
  1. Who’s incorrect: (a) Christianity that has said, “Jesus died on Good Friday and on rose Easter Sunday”, or (b) Christ who’s said, “**[buried] 3 days and 3 nights…and * will rise on the 3rd day*”?
From the sample, most would answer: B) Christianity is correct. Christ is incorrect.
  1. Which is reliable: (a) Christ’s words or the words passed down by the (b) Authorities of Christianity?
From the same sample, most would answer: B) Authorities of Christianity are reliable. Christ’s words - alone - are not.
So if Christ’s words aren’t correct nor reliable, it begs the question “who do Christians REALLY depend upon” (since all we have from Christ are his words)? Of course, I’m being provocative again…but isn’t it possible that Christ correctly and reliable meant “3 days and 3 nights”, but we’ve gotten the days wrong?

Isn’t it possible that WE could be wrong?**
 
Christ’s words are entirely correct and reliable! As he is fully God for all eternity, everything that he says is the most perfect thing that could have been said at that moment! So since he cannot be wrong, human misunderstanding is certainly possible. I do not believe that we have misunderstood, but I concede that any error is on our part - never on our Lord’s! But I would also say this: to be “in the heart of the earth” for three days and three nights does not necessarily mean buried, in my opinion. Though that does seem to be the plain meaning of the text, my seminary professors (who were not liberal at all) always believed that it either meant A) he was subject to the corrupt and depraved “heart” of mankind (the world, called the “earth” in this case) for three days, or else B) it was merely an emphatic way of expressing 3 days. I might say I was “up all night” if I only received 2 hours of sleep. No one would call me a liar or say I was incorrect; they would understand that my night was irregular. I’ve been blessed with opportunities to hear a few NT and Greek scholars on this issue, and they generally seem to think it’s just an “up all night”-style figure of speech. I’m willing to trust the judgment of wiser men than I. 🙂
 
Joshua27 said:
B) Christianity is correct. Christ is incorrect.

B) Authorities of Christianity are reliable. Christ’s words - alone - are not.

Isn’t it possible that WE could be wrong?
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I think the possibility is YOUR INTERPRETATION is incorrect and YOUR WORDS AND AUTHORITY only bind you not to the whole Church.

I think other posters has given more than enough replies only to be twisted with your own interpretation of the scripture.

I pray that you come to terms that Jesus is Christ and indeed our God
the only begotten Son of God the Father
Conceived by the power of the Holy Spirit, born of the Virgin Mary
Suffered under Pontius Pilate, was crucified, died, and was buried
Descended to the dead, on the third day rose again
Ascended into heaven and is seated at the right hand of the Father
And will come again to judge the living and the dead.

God Bless
 
blazerdave said:
Christ’s words are entirely correct and reliable! As he is fully God for all eternity, everything that he says is the most perfect thing that could have been said at that moment! So since he cannot be wrong, human misunderstanding is certainly possible. I do not believe that we have misunderstood, but I concede that any error is on our part - never on our Lord’s! But I would also say this: to be “in the heart of the earth” for three days and three nights does not necessarily mean buried, in my opinion. Though that does seem to be the plain meaning of the text, my seminary professors (who were not liberal at all) always believed that it either meant A) he was subject to the corrupt and depraved “heart” of mankind (the world, called the “earth” in this case) for three days, or else B) it was merely an emphatic way of expressing 3 days. I might say I was “up all night” if I only received 2 hours of sleep. No one would call me a liar or say I was incorrect; they would understand that my night was irregular. I’ve been blessed with opportunities to hear a few NT and Greek scholars on this issue, and they generally seem to think it’s just an “up all night”-style figure of speech. I’m willing to trust the judgment of wiser men than I. 🙂
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I appreciate your conversation, Dave, and if you’d allow me to continue our conversation later on that would be great. It’s 2:39am where I am and (speaking on hours of sleep) I need a little. I will respond as soon as I have the time when I awaken.
MACHIU said:
I think the possibility is YOUR INTERPRETATION is incorrect and YOUR WORDS AND AUTHORITY only bind you not to the whole Church.

I think other posters has given more than enough replies only to be twisted with your own interpretation of the scripture.

I pray that you come to terms that Jesus is Christ and indeed our God
the only begotten Son of God the Father
Conceived by the power of the Holy Spirit, born of the Virgin Mary
Suffered under Pontius Pilate, was crucified, died, and was buried
Descended to the dead, on the third day rose again
Ascended into heaven and is seated at the right hand of the Father
And will come again to judge the living and the dead.

God Bless
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…As for you, Machiu; It’s a shame that you reply with such venom when it’s obviously that you’re uncomfortable with me asking these questions. If you’re uncomfortable just simply avoid the thread. You accuse me of “twisting replies with my own interpretation of scripture” and yet I’ve merely “quoted” scripture and asked questions.

One can’t reinterperet “3 days and 3 nights” any differently - or more fiendishly - than “3 days and 3 nights”.

We should be able to ask each other quesiton concerning the foundation of our faith, and yet your attack would suggest that the very act of delving deeper into the particulars of our faith is heresy. Is it? Because if it is, then we’re right back in the Age of the Inquisition.

Are you angry that I’m asking these questions or are you angry that my questions are a bit rational?
Goodnight all…until later
 
blazerdave said:
Christ’s words are entirely correct and reliable! As he is fully God for all eternity, everything that he says is the most perfect thing that could have been said at that moment! So since he cannot be wrong, human misunderstanding is certainly possible.I do not believe that we have misunderstood, but I concede that any error is on our part - never on our Lord’s!
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EXACTLY my reasoning, Dave!
blazerdave said:
But I would also say this: to be “in the heart of the earth” for three days and three nights does not necessarily mean buried, in my opinion. Though that does seem to be the plain meaning of the text, my seminary professors (who were not liberal at all) always believed that it either meant A) he was subject to the corrupt and depraved “heart” of mankind (the world, called the “earth” in this case) for three days, or else B) it was merely an emphatic way of expressing 3 days. I might say I was “up all night” if I only received 2 hours of sleep. No one would call me a liar or say I was incorrect; they would understand that my night was irregular. I’ve been blessed with opportunities to hear a few NT and Greek scholars on this issue, and they generally seem to think it’s just an “up all night”-style figure of speech. I’m willing to trust the judgment of wiser men than I. 🙂
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This reason is also valid.

– To All –

So is it safe to say that there are two lines of reasoning for this issue:
  1. What Christ said was a figure of speech (supported by scolars & professors)
  2. What Christ said was exactly what he meant
…And since - for 1900+ years - we (Christians) have assumed a “Good Friday to Easter Sunday” timeline, it’s safe to say that we’re sincere and obedient to the first line of reasoning…so we don’t need to revisit it because we’ve always got it - safe - in our back pockets (so to say) – I’d hope others would keep this in mind as they reply to anything I post.
If Christ’s words ARE entirely correct and perfect; if Christ meant exactly what he said (“3 days and 3 nights in the heart of the earth and resurrected on the 3rd day”), what does this mean for we, Christianity, to be incorrect?

Machiu, before his rebuke, shared something in his first post that I allude to in my opening; that time (in hours) was reckoned differently back then, but this still doesn’t change the fact that “days” are distinguished from “nights”:

Whether the next day/night starts at 6pm or 12am, both mark the “morrow” (as in “tomorrow”), and both are divisions of 12 hours…even Christ said it:

John 11:9 - Jesus answered, "Are there not twelve hours of daylight? A man who walks by day will not stumble, for he sees by this world’s light.​

…The math must work somehow, because otherwise it leaves room for (as Machiu accused me of) misinterpretation of the words of Christ, and we know He said many important things:

“I am the way, the truth, and the life…”, really could be just a figure of speech (heck, athiests are alive and they don’t believe in Christ or God).

“I and my Father are one.”, really could be just a figure of speech (that a Triune Godhead isn’t true).

“Unless you eat my flesh and drink my blood you have no life in you”, really could be just a figure of speech (so much for real Eucharistic presence).

Anyone could argue, “Oh, Christ didn’t really mean those things as he said them”…so Christ must be exact with his words, right? I mean…we can’t cherrypick what’s literal and what are “figures of speech”, right?

Who always conforms to whom - changes to “fit” - when a discrepancy is found? Do the views of Christianity conform to Christ, or does Christ always conform to Christianity?
 
…If Christ always conforms to [changes to “fit”] Christianity, then is the Christ we follow a “shape-shifter”; a masquerader?

There is only one who was ever labeled as a “masquerader” in scripture…specifically by Paul:

2 Corinthians 11:14 - And no wonder, for Satan himself masquerades as an angel of light.​

Is there a flaw in my reasoning?
 
Joshua27 said:
I mean…we can’t cherrypick what’s literal and what are “figures of speech”, right?

Who always conforms to whom - changes to “fit” - when a discrepancy is found? Do the views of Christianity conform to Christ, or does Christ always conform to Christianity?
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We do not seek to cherrypick what’s literal and what’s not. Rather, we take Jesus’ words to mean what they seem to mean. If they are parable, we read them as such. Likewise if they are prophecy. But I would also say that, since Christ’s words are perfect, there is no contradiction there. Scripture can interpret itself, and the easier passages can clear up the harder ones. In this case, the “three days and three nights in the heart of the earth” are equal to “the Christ should suffer and on the third day rise from the dead” of St. Luke 24:46 and “he was raised on the third day in accordance with the Scriptures” of 1 Cor. 15:4. Being One with the Father, or being the True Bread from Heaven, are not statements that are of the same genre as this. They are descriptions by Christ of himself, while third day/three days are descriptions of a prophecy and its fulfillment.

So, while they appear to not say the same thing, third day & three days are the same. They are just different expressions for the same event - one of which compared that event to a commonly known Prophet’s tale, and the other which described the chronology. 🙂
 
Joshua27 said:
…If Christ always conforms to [changes to “fit”] Christianity, then is the Christ we follow a “shape-shifter”; a masquerader?

There is only one who was ever labeled as a “masquerader” in scripture…specifically by Paul:

2 Corinthians 11:14 - And no wonder, for Satan himself masquerades as an angel of light.​

Is there a flaw in my reasoning?
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The flaw I see is that you are using Christ’s words to prove that he was the Anti-christ. You are also using the words of the apostles to say that Christ is the Anti-christ. What doesn’t make sense in this logic is that there would be no Anti-christ if it were not for the existance of Christ. Why would the apostles be following the Anti-christ while calling out who the Anti-christ is? The Christ that Christians worship was the Messiah foretold in the Old Testament scriptures. If this Messiah was not Jesus, then what is the point of the Anti-Christ since Christ hasn’t come yet?

I think you have to look at the bigger picture here. Who was the Messiah and what signs given in the Old Testament would point to this Messiah? Does Jesus fulfill these signs? You mentioned Jesus’ words regarding “3 days and 3 nights.” (Someone more knowledgeable than myself please correct me if I’m wrong). Jesus had a style of teaching where he would quote an Old Testament verse, not to specifically call to mind THAT verse, but what the verse and the entire chapter (or section since they didn’t really have chapters and verses back then) meant to the Jewish people at that time. The Gospel of Matthew is full of this type of discourse. One example (because I don’t have my study notes with me) is when Jesus is on the cross and he quotes from Psalm 22 “My God My God why hast thou forsaken me?” Jesus isn’t literally saying the God has forsaken him. By quoting this verse, he is calling to mind the theme of that chapter which is VICTORY and DELIVERANCE over suffering.

In the same chapter in Matthew that references Jesus’ quote on Jonah, read just a few verses above it. The Pharisees are claiming the argument that you are putting forth here.
Matthew 12: 22-33
22 Then they brought to him a demoniac who was blind and mute. He cured the mute person so that he could speak and see.
23 All the crowd was astounded, and said, “Could this perhaps be the Son of David?”
24 But when the Pharisees heard this, they said, “This man drives out demons only by the power of Beelzebul, the prince of demons.”
25 But he knew what they were thinking and said to them, "Every kingdom divided against itself will be laid waste, and no town or house divided against itself will stand.
26 And if Satan drives out Satan, he is divided against himself; how, then, will his kingdom stand?
27 And if I drive out demons by Beelzebul, by whom do your own people drive them out? Therefore they will be your judges.
28 But if it is by the Spirit of God that I drive out demons, then the kingdom of God has come upon you.
29 How can anyone enter a strong man’s house and steal his property, unless he first ties up the strong man? Then he can plunder his house.
30 Whoever is not with me is against me, and whoever does not gather with me scatters.
31Therefore, I say to you, every sin and blasphemy will be forgiven people, but blasphemy against the Spirit will not be forgiven.
32 And whoever speaks a word against the Son of Man will be forgiven; but whoever speaks against the holy Spirit will not be forgiven, either in this age or in the age to come.
33 "Either declare the tree good and its fruit is good, or declare the tree rotten and its fruit is rotten, for a tree is known by its fruit.
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This reminds me of a you tube video that my cousin sent me one time claiming this very thing. Claiming that really as Christians we were worshiping Satan instead of God.
 
Joshua27 said:
  1. Who’s incorrect: (a) Christianity that has said, “Jesus died on Good Friday and on rose Easter Sunday”, or (b) Christ who’s said, “[buried] 3 days and 3 nights…and * will rise on the 3rd day*”?
From the sample, most would answer: B) Christianity is correct. Christ is incorrect.
  1. Which is reliable: (a) Christ’s words or the words passed down by the (b) Authorities of Christianity?
From the same sample, most would answer: B) Authorities of Christianity are reliable. Christ’s words - alone - are not.

This is a false dichotomy. Both Christ and Christianity are correct (well, maybe not all Christians). Christ was not wrong - what he said was correct given how it would have been interpreted by the ancients. Christ meant that he would die on Friday and the Resurrection would take place on Sunday. Christians who believe this are thus also correct. Both Christ and Christians are correct since the issue you see is just a linguistic/cultural difference. Jesus is still correct and was understood fine by ancient Jews and Greeks. This is how it was interpreted by the ancients, and that is why Christianity continues the celebration of Easter on Sunday, which is a long-standing tradition based on the original, and correct, understanding of Jesus’ words.

As for the second question, the authorities that tell us that Easter is on a Sunday speak the same truth that Jesus did, so we do not have to be exclusive in choosing which to trust. We trust Jesus, and since the authorities tell us what Jesus meant, we believe them. The authorities not to trust are those who break with the original understanding of this passage.

If anyone needs some more clarification on what Jesus meant, check this out. I found this link on another thread.
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